Showing posts with label James White. Show all posts
Showing posts with label James White. Show all posts

Thursday, March 7, 2024

Drawn by Jesus? A Response to Leighton Flowers and upcoming Debate with James White.


A list of 7 simple questions asked and answered regarding John 6:44 ~ 

(1) Who are those "drawn" by the Father as to come to the Son?
The Children of Promise aka God's Elect; a remnant unmeritely chosen by God's grace unto faith, righteousness and salvation (genesis 17:7, romans 9:8,11, and romans 11:5-7). 

(2) Why "initially" are the Children of Promise aka God's Elect "drawn" by Father as to come to the Son? Because they have always belonged to the Father and appointed beforehand OR prior to faith as already "heirs" according to Abraham Covenant (john 8:35-47, luke 19:10, galatians 4:30, romans 4:16, 22-25, romans 9:6-11)

(3) When "exactly" OR for "how long" have the Children of Promise OR God's Elect belonged to the Father?
There was NEVER a "time" when they didn't; since they belonged to Him "before the foundation of the world" OR "before time" as we consider the concept of time as it relates to a chronological order of events (ephesians 1:11 and ephesians 1:14).

(4) When "exactly" OR for "how long" have the Children of Promise OR God's Elect belonged to the Son?
There was NEVER a "time" when they didn't; since they belonged to Him "before the foundation of the world" OR "before time" as we consider the concept of time as it relates to a chronological order of events. The Father gave His Elect to the Son as His very own sheep before creation. This is why Ephesians 1:4 asserts that the Father chose "us" in Christ before the foundation of the world as already belonging to Him; with the end goal in mind to be "holy and blameless". The "heirs of promise" have always belonged to both the Father and the Son. This is also why Jesus can claim - "what's yours is mine and what is mine is yours" (john 17:10).

(5) Were those (children of promise aka God's elect) chose before creation elected unto salvation? YES! The same one's predestined before the foundation of the world for adoption as sons are the very same one's who go on to hear the word of truth and positively respond the Gospel as to be saved (ephesians 1:5 and ephesians 1:13-14) according to the context.

(6) Are those elected before creation unto salvation the same ones "drawn" by the Father as to come to the Son and believe in Him? Absolutely! They are the very "heirs of promise" for whom the Son came down from Heaven as to do the will of the Father and lose none of all those whom before creation was given to Him (1 peter 1:18-25, 1 peter 2:6-10 and 1 peter 2:24-25).

(7) Are those "drawn" to the Son by the Father a particular people to the exclusion of the rest of mankind?
YES! The only ones drawn by the Father are the Children of Promise OR God's Elect who have already been appointed beforehand OR prior to faith for salvation. Those who have been passed over by God for salvation and will never or could ever be drawn by the Father (as in, an impossibility) to the Son are those for example the scripture speaks of as (a) the perishing (b) rest of mankind (c) those who Father is the Devil (d) and those who do not belong to Him as His sheep.

CONCLUSION

No one's "drawn" by the Father according to their "libertarian free will" as Leighton claims. The scriptures are clear! The only ones "drawn" are those whom the Father has eternally loved - His beloved; the Children of Promise, chosen before creation and decreed unto salvation. If Leighton would like to debate me; simply contact me - I'M READY.

By Aaron Fisher 

Saturday, February 17, 2024

A child's state of so called "innocence" is NOT a criteria nor factor regarding their possible salvation - only the mercy of God!

                                                          

There is a popular teaching among Christian circles that a newborn or young child who unfortunately happens to die prematurely is somehow entitled to inherit salvation due to the so called "innocence" of the child not having enough acquired knowledge as to not only discern good from evil but also enough acquired knowledge as to reject evil and choose the good. However, first and foremost, such an assertion would presume that every infant or young child has been favorably blessed by God as to partake and benefit of the New Covenant and the spiritual blessings which derive from it; which gives life to the spiritually dead as Christ sheep (hebrews 13:20, 2 corinthians 3:6). Secondly, another major delimmna; is that God has predetermined as in chosen prior to one's birth all of everyone who has been foreordained to inherit salvation and that ones salvation is not dependent upon any criteria on the individual's part; apart from whom God has predetermined to show mercy to beforehand (romans 9:11). So, in order for any individual to argue that an infant or young child is "entitled" to inherit salvation due to their so called state of "innocence" - one must likewise 'successfully' demonstrate this assertion biblically from scripture that such an entitlement of salvation is "indeed" a "factor" regarding God's decision or determination to have mercy upon a child who dies prematurely and likewise chooses them prior to their birth for glory in order for such an assertion to be scripturally accurate. 

On the other hand, I believe the scriptures has clearly stated that God chose specific individuals prior to their birth as to not regard any specific good deed OR evil deed of which they had not done as of yet OR will do - involving His prerogative to save whom He wills (romans 9:11). Therefore, if God did not take into account any good deed; let alone any evil deed; then one's "innocence" is not a factor in His determination to save - seeing that such an assertion of a child's so called "innocence" would surely suggest that an infant or young child is not capable of doing anything good or bad "as of yet" as a factor. The true biblical doctrine of Election rules out such a criteria of "innocence" of entitlement for salvation because God has determined to have mercy upon His elect not taking into account prior to one's birth any evil that a infant or young child who prematurely dies after birth may or may not or even could have committed (romans 9:11). God's saves in spite of the sins committed of His elect; therefore neither a child or an adult sin's for that matter; is a factor in the salvation of His chosen ones. Therefore, the so called "innocence" of a child is entirely ruled out regarding the salvation of God's people because an infant or young child's state of "innocence" implies potential future guilt regarding acts of evil and God has neither elected His people on the basis of committed acts of evil or committed acts of good BUT only on the basis of His prerogative prior to one's birth to have mercy upon whom He wills!

By Aaron Fisher 

Friday, February 9, 2024

Provisionalism, Pelagianism AND the Biblical Truth!

[In love] God [predestined] us for [adoption to himself as sons] through Jesus Christ, according to the purpose of his will, [to the praise of his glorious grace], with which he has [blessed us in the Beloved] - Ephesians 2:5-6

Leighton Flowers outright dissociates himself from Pelagianism or even Semi Plaginism for that matter. However both Pelagianism and Semi-Pelagianism do acknowledge as not to reject God's "grace". Nonetheless, Pelagianism, Semi-Pelagianism AND Provisionalism do indeed reject God's grace. They reject God's "initial" or "primary" grace that preceded creation itself. This grace or unmerited favor of God was predetermined towards a particular people by decree unto faith. This particular grace was brought forth in love as to predestine a people before the foundation of the world unto adoption as sons aka believers in God. And if predestined to adoption as sons; then those predestined were by default foreordained to believe - to the exclusion of the "rest of mankind" of whom God did not predestine. Therefore, by the Provisionist own acknowledgement - they fit the religious category of Pelagianism or even Semi Plaginism for argument sake because they unequivocally deny God's grace; the very grace that preceded creation itself!

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Saving Grace is a Unique and Particular Grace that's not granted to all men but Only a select few; God's Elect (Ephesians 2:4-10). 

SAVING GRACE is a particular grace that's not granted to all men but only a chosen few whom God has predetermined to unmeritly favor in regards to their salvation. This grace is distinct from all other graces bestowed by God seeing that only a select group can benefit from this unique grace. We see this confirmation of such grace particularly in Ephesians Chapter 1 and 2. The saving grace the Apostle Paul speaks of (ephesians 2:4-10) is in conjunction with Gods choosing and predestining before the foundation of the world a particular people as adopted sons to be holy and blameless (ephesians 1:4-5). Therefore, this particular grace rules out the "rest of mankind" (eph.1:3) or "sons of disobedience" whom God has left to remain in their sins being still deserving of wrath (ephesians 5:5-12) from ever benefitting from such grace.

In order for the "rest of mankind" or the "sons of disobedience" that God has passed over as to remain in their sins to benefit from this unique and particular saving grace - then they too must have been chosen in Christ and predestined as well before the foundation of the world to partake of any and such spiritual blessing (ephesians 1:3). Furthermore, those of whom God neither chose or predestined before creation also would have to been among those for whom Jesus had died for (ephesians 5:1-2) in order for them to be redeemed by His blood and their sins forgiven (ephesians 1:7) of which they were not. To argue otherwise, would be to undermine the love of God for a specific people unto His own glory and to assert or demand that God must love everyone as in all without exception in the very same manner for He only "in love" predestined before the foundation of the world those whom He foreknew; a particular people for His own glory while passing over the rest. Furthermore, to also argue against God having chose and predestined a select people unto salvation would call into question His wisdom, counsel, and judgement as if they are somehow flawed or misguided and not considered perfect in and of themselves seeing that God is perfect in all His ways as Paul goes on to rightly proclaim (ephesians 1:8-10). The grace or favor of God is only extended towards a select few of whom He has both foreknew and foreloved.

By Aaron Fisher


Friday, February 2, 2024

Children of Wrath by Nature (ephesians 2:3)?



Regarding, EPHESIANS 2:3 - the "nature" to which Paul is referring to is with respect to the flesh of man from birth (john 3:6); it is of the "old man" as an unbeliever (colossians 3:9 and ephesians 4:22).

Everyone born, is born as an unbeliever according to sinful flesh. When Jesus said 'that which is BORN of flesh is flesh' - He was referring to sinful flesh (john 3:6). This is why Paul states that God sent His Son in the likeness of sinful flesh - in reference to the "sin nature" of all humanity (romans 8:3). 

Jesus came in the likeness of sinful flesh in order to condemn the power of sin upon the cross which permeates the flesh of man; as in total depravity, to which we are born under. You cannot separate one's nature from his flesh. Although, I agree, that "by nature" is in reference to "habitual sinful conduct" according to the specific Greek word that is used and it's context.

However, what many fail to realize is that this "habitual sinful conduct" is spoken of as the 'default' position of man who is born of sinful flesh; for man born of mere flesh can only obey sin and the sinful desires of the heart (romans 6:12-14) according to the 'nature' spoken of in Ephesians 2:3. The sinful flesh of man can ONLY bear fruit which leads to spiritual death (romans 7:5). Sinful man, from birth, is UNABLE to obey God in righteousness apart from the work of the Spirit that would enable him to do so (romans 7:4-6).

This is why we ALL come out of our mother's wound deserving God's wrath for we are deemed sinners from birth (romans 5:18-19) unable to do otherwise apart from imputed righteousness. There is no condemnation for those who are "in Christ" but for those who are not "in Christ" - eternal punishment justly awaits. We are not born "in Christ" but rather "in Adam" deserving God's wrath because we are born as "sons of disobedience" according to our nature (ephesians 2:1-3). We are ALL born as unbelievers from birth, as the 'old man' in Adam according to sinful flesh, deserving God's wrath - this is the testimony of scripture!

In other words, those deserving of God's wrath or children of God's wrath the Apostle Paul is referring to (ephesians 2:3) are those in an unbelieving state and if in an unbelieving state; then they are still "in Adam" as the "old man" and if they are considered to still be of the "old man" then they are likewise still of the flesh to which they were born that can only bear fruit unto death. Those who are merely of the flesh and have not been "born again" - CANNOT please God; including newborn infants and young children. God would be 'just' condemning ALL not found to be in Christ but still in Adam at judgement.

Nature (ephesians 2:3): Unbeliever = Old Man = In Adam = From Birth = Sinful flesh by default that can only bear fruit unto spiritual death = Deserving of God's Wrath 

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SEE ALSO - The TWO NATURE'S of MANKIND (the old and new man).


By Aaron Fisher 

Wednesday, January 24, 2024

Babies born sinful according to scripture? What does God's Word actually teach?

 


Scripture states that God sent His Son in the likeness of SINFUL FLESH (romans 8:3). Question. Is this "flesh" spoken of in (romans 8:3) a reference to newly born babies as well? YES! Jesus has declared (john 3:6) that which is born of flesh (same Greek word regarding romans 8:3) is flesh and that which is born of Spirit is Spirit. Therefore, since newborn babies are born to the same "sinful" flesh that Jesus was sent into the world in the likeness of - infants along with every other class of people are born with a sinful nature just the same - for you cannot separate ones nature (innate natural desires) and ones flesh (sinful desires and works of sinful flesh) from one another; the two are inseparable. For example, if ones flesh is sinful; then ones nature is as well. Babies are born in sin; with a sin nature - deserving of God's wrath along with the rest of mankind simply because of their nature alone to which we are all born to. Mere flesh cannot enter the Kingdom of God; one must be born again - including infants if they are indeed to enter into the Kingdom at all. This is why Ephesians 2:3 speaks of the very nature of which man is born to as deserving of God's wrath because we are born sinful or as sinners in spite of having not done any evil deeds as of yet because our default disposition as a sinner when born is considered to be a slave to sin as to only obey unrighteousness. The very nature to which we are born can ONLY bear fruit which leads to death (romans 7:5). Therefore, the only fruit that any human being can bear according to their sinful nature would lead to condemnation apart from becoming born again. Man's very nature alone to which he was born is enough to send that person to the Lake of Fire. Sure, the scriptures state that mankind will be judged according to our works; however if one is not able to bear good fruit from any works according to their sinful nature; regardless of whatever defining characteristic you may put forth or assign to the individual - that person will still be condemned because that person while in his flesh apart from any works could NEVER bear fruit to please God nonetheless because of his nature. The unclean or impure according to sinful flesh to which we are born can't inherit the Kingdom of God; including newborn babies. The "nature" of the sinful baby must be changed in order for that baby to enter the Kingdom - and if the baby's nature must be changed; then prior to the change of that baby's nature; that baby by default could not enter the Kingdom but rather perish as to enter the Lake of Fire along with the rest of wicked sinners.

A FURTHER ARGUMENTATION

There is no condemnation for all those who are "in Christ" - ROMANS 8:1. Therefore, God has the right to judge everyone who is not "in Christ" but are yet still "in Adam" - including babies. Apart from any works; that being good or evil - that baby is still considered to be a sinner (ROMANS 5:19). Newborn babies are born into the world as a "sons of disobedience" (EPHESIANS 2:2) for this is his or her standing or status in the world; as a sinner. Furthermore, scripture declares God has a right to fashion some individuals as vessels of dishonor having been prepared beforehand (before they are born) for destruction; even though ALL OF MANKIND indeed stands condemned already. Consider Esau; his fate was sealed before he was born. If God sealed Esau's fate before he was born; then what's the difference between a baby that's already condemned prior to having been born and the condemnation beforehand for example of an unbelieving elderly individual having been born as well but who lived a long life but who's deeds are still considered evil nonetheless? There is no difference! They both are still considered to be sinners and they both will be condemned as sinners - one having been condemned without works as a sinner (newborn baby) and the other being condemned according to their works as a sinner (elderly individual); and rightfully so. There is no injustice with God; he has the right to fashion each vessel as He sees fit. If a baby is to be condemned; then that baby will be condemned as one who is a sinner without works having not been chosen beforehand prior to it's birth unto salvation. In order for you to argue against my position; then you would have to explain biblically - how is it possible for a baby who is found not to be "in Christ" when born be something other than as to not stand condemned before God as not "in Christ" but still "in Adam" upon their death on judgement day?

By Aaron Fisher 

Saturday, December 2, 2023

Spiritual Blindness / Walking In Darkness / Ontologically / From Birth / Unable to See


I reached out to Leighton Flowers through Facebook Messenger March of 2021 and sent him this response regarding one of his videos to his assertion that sinful man is not born spiritually blind. To this day, he has not replied back. Unfortunately, he continues to speak falsehoods.

Scripturally, walking in DARKNESS corresponds with being BLIND (roman's 2:19, 1 john 2:11). Both walking in darkness and being blind constitutes as being UNABLE to SEE and understand spiritually the things of God. This truth stands in stark CONTRAST to those who walk in the LIGHT and have EYES TO SEE. Sinful man born at birth comes out of his mother's womb as to walk in darkness; therefore comes out the womb of his mother spiritually blind. If you say otherwise, then you will be falsely suggesting that sinful man at birth comes out of his mother's womb walking in Light; and in order for that to be true, you will also be falsely suggesting that sinful man at birth comes out of the womb as already born again, regenerated, and saved, for this is what it means as to "walk in the light". But this can not be case, for NO ONE comes out of the womb at birth already WALKING IN THE LIGHT or REGENERATED. 

In addition, sinful man from birth who inevitably walks in darkness does so because of his nature; that being of the 'old man' who is enslaved to sin and the sinful desires of the flesh IN CONTRAST to the 'new man' with a new nature who is enslaved to righteousness and has the power and ability to mortify the deeds of the flesh BY THE SPIRIT; a privilege the "old man" doesn't have because of his nature being void of the Spirit. It is the Holy Spirit IN MAN or NOT that is the dividing line between the two natures; that being IN CHRIST having the Spirit or IN ADAM without the Spirit. On one hand, the unbeliever being represented as the 'old man' can ONLY obey sin, unrighteousness, and the sinful desires of the flesh and therefore by default 'walks in darkness and is spiritually blind' BUT on the other hand, the believer by distinction has been freed from the power and enslavement of sin and the flesh desires and therefore can now freely obey the Spirit and righteousness; even though at times may yield themselves to the desires of the flesh whether it be momentarily or for a season. Nevertheless, the believer has been freed from the power of sin and have the power to obey as to 'walk in the light having eyes to see'.

Point being, the 'old man' can only obey sin and the 'new man' has been freed from only obeying sin but now righteousness as well. This fact, is due to the difference in the 'old and new mans' nature. The 'old man' can ONLY bear fruit unto death and the 'new man' bears fruit unto God. Nonetheless, both bears fruit - be it ACCORDING to their NATURE. The "nature" of any individual newly born is that of the "old man" or unbeliever; therefore they come out of their mother's womb as to "walk in darkness" AKA spiritually blind! 

Spiritually Blind from Birth! Leighton is once again wrong, according to the scriptures.

By Aaron Fisher

Sunday, November 26, 2023

Denying the Master that "bought" them (2 Peter 2:1)?

But false prophets also arose among the people, just as there will also be false teachers among you, who will secretly introduce destructive heresies, even (denying the Master who bought them), bringing swift destruction upon themselves / 2 PETER 2:1

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2 PETER 2:1 - is not in reference to a payment price in blood regarding Christ Jesus. However, the term "bought" is indeed in reference to "redeeming". It is a "purchase" regarding a special possession of a particular people by the Father - a "buying back" of what rightfully belongs to God from the house of physical slavery; by means of miraculous works and signs according to God's power; not blood.. Again, "bought" as in redemption from physical slavery; not spiritual slavery - as in, false Prophets were among God's people or Israel as a whole who ALL were "bought" or "redeemed" by the Father from physical slavery from the Egyptians. For those who insist on trying to make this particular verse relate to Christ blood 'bought' purchase of a people has unfortunately and gravely mishandled the text according to the overall context.

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Scriptural Proof according to an overall context to back up my argument that "bought" is in reference to a buying back of a particular people as in a treasured possession by God the Father whom He claimed as His with miraculous works, signs and wonders and an outstretched hand and not a blood sacrifice. 

1) Terror and dread will fall on them. By the power of your arm they will be as still as a stone-- until your people pass by, LORD, until the people you [BOUGHT] pass by. - Exodus 15:16

2) Now if you obey me fully and keep my covenant, then out of all nations you will be my [TREASURED POSSESSION]. Although the whole earth is mine - Exodus 19:5

3) Do you thus repay the LORD, O foolish people and unwise? is not he your [FATHER] that has [BOUGHT YOU]? has he not made you, and [ESTABLISHED YOU]? - Deuteronomy 32:6

4) That prophet or dreamer must be put to death for inciting rebellion against the LORD your God, who brought you out of Egypt and [REDEEMED] you from the land of slavery [MARKET PLACE, HOUSE OF SLAVERY]. That prophet or dreamer tried to turn you from the way the LORD your God commanded you to follow. You must purge the evil from among you - Deuteronomy 13:5

5) Remember the nation you [PURCHASED, BOUGHT] long ago, the people of your inheritance, whom you [REDEEMED] -- Mount Zion, where you dwelt. Now if you obey me fully and keep my covenant, then out of all nations you will be my [TREASURED POSSESSION]. Although the whole earth is mine - Psalm 74:2

6) "Therefore, say to the Israelites: 'I am the LORD, and I will bring you out from under the yoke of the Egyptians. [I WILL FREE YOU FROM BEING SLAVES TO THEM], and I will [REDEEM] you with an [OUTSTETCHED ARM AND WITH MIGHTY ACTS OF JUDGEMENT]. Exodus 6:6

7) But because the LORD loved you and kept the oath He swore to your fathers, He brought you out with a [MIGHTY HAND AND REDEEMED YOU FROM THE HOUSE OF SLAVERY], from the hand of Pharaoh king of Egypt. - Deuteronomy 7:8

8).Then the LORD brought us out of Egypt with a [MIGHTY HAND AND AN OUTSTETCHED ARM, WITH GREAT TERROR, SIGNS, AND WONDERS]. - Deuteronomy 26:8

9).And who is like Your people Israel--the one nation on earth whom God went out to [REDEEM AS A PEOPLE FOR HIMSELF], to make a name for Yourself through [GREAT AND AWESOME WONDERS] by driving out nations from before Your people, whom You [REDEEMED FROM EGYPT]? - 1 Chronicles 17:21

10) Has any god ever tried to take [REDEEM] for himself one nation out of another nation, [BY TESTINGS, BY SIGNS, AND WONDERS, BY WAR, BY A MIGHTY HAND AND AN OUTSTRETCHED ARM OR GREAT AND AWESOME DEEDS], like all the things the LORD your God did for you in Egypt before your very eyes? Deuteronomy 4:3 

11) Remember that you were slaves in Egypt and that the LORD your God brought [REDEEMED] you out of there with a [MIGHTY HAND AND AN OUTSTRETCHED ARM]. Therefore the LORD your God has commanded you to observe the Sabbath day.  - DEUTERONOMY 5:15

12) But the Lord, who brought you up out of Egypt with [MIGHTY POWER AND OUTSTRETCHED ARM], is the one you must worship. To him you shall bow down and to him offer sacrifices. 37You must always be careful to keep the decrees and regulations, the laws and commands he wrote for you. Do not worship other gods. 38Do not forget the covenant I have made with you, and do not worship other gods. 39Rather, worship the Lord your God; it is he who will deliver you from the hand of all your enemies.” - 2 KINGS 17:36-39

13) But now, this is what the LORD says-- he who created you, Jacob, he who formed you, Israel: "Do not fear, for I have [REDEEMED] you; I have [SUMMONED YIU BY NAME; YOU ARE MINE]. Isaiah 43:1  

14) For I am the LORD your God, the Holy One of Israel, your Savior; I give Egypt for your [RANSOM], Cush and Seba in your stead. - Isaiah 43:3

15) The wicked shall be a [RANSOM] for the righteous, and the transgressor for the upright - Proverbs 21:18  

16) Return, faithless Israel,
declares the LORD.
I will not look on you in anger,
for I am merciful,
declares the LORD;
I will not be angry forever.
13Only acknowledge your guilt,
that you rebelled against the LORD your God
and scattered your favors among foreigners under every green tree,
and that you have not obeyed my voice,
declares the LORD.
14Return, O faithless children,
declares the LORD;
for I am your [MASTER];
I will take you, one from a city and two from a family,
and I will bring you to Zion.

15“‘And I will give you shepherds after my own heart, who will feed you with knowledge and understanding. 16And when you have multiplied and been fruitful in the land, in those days, declares the LORD, they shall no more say, “The ark of the covenant of the LORD.” It shall not come to mind or be remembered or missed; it shall not be made again. 17At that time Jerusalem shall be called the throne of the LORD, and all nations shall gather to it, to the presence of the LORD in Jerusalem, and they shall no more stubbornly follow their own evil heart. 18In those days the house of Judah shall join the house of Israel, and together they shall come from the land of the north to the land that I gave your fathers for a heritage.

19“‘I said,
How I would set you among my sons,
and give you a pleasant land,
a heritage most beautiful of all nations.
And I thought you would call me, [MY FATHER],
and would not turn from following me.
20Surely, as a treacherous wife leaves her husband,
so have you been treacherous to me, O house of Israel,
declares the LORD - JEREMIAH 3:12-20

17) For I brought you up from the land of Egypt and [REDEEMED] you from the [HOUSE OF SLAVERY]. I sent Moses before you, as well as Aaron and Miriam. - Micah 6:4

18) He sent them a prophet, who told them, "This is what the LORD, the God of Israel, says: I brought you up out of Egypt, out of the [HOUSE OF SLAVERY]. - Judges 6:8

19) So Moses told the people, "Remember this day, the day you came out of Egypt, out of the [HOUSE OF SLAVERY]; for the LORD brought you out of it [BY THE STRENGTH OF HIS HAND]. And nothing leavened shall be eaten. - Exodus 13:3

By Aaron Fisher 

Wednesday, November 22, 2023

The Gift of Faith?

Everyone who believes that Jesus is the Christ has been born of God ~ 1 john 5:1

What is a gift? A gift is something that's freely given by the giver and not acquired by merit or entitlement and likewise without repayment. Biblical faith is a byproduct of a new heart according to God's grace and mercy. The "taking out of the stubborn heart of stone of a sinner and replacing it with a compliant heart of flesh" is a sole unilateral work of God - as in regeneration that leads to spiritual life. When God says, "I'll give you a new heart and a new Spirit and cause you to obey my statues" - He is strongly implying that obedience to His words of command can only be accomplished if a new heart has been granted by way of spiritual circumcision. When the command comes to "repent and believe" in the Good News of Jesus Christ; unless a new compliant heart of flesh has been granted prior to - the sinner will not be able to comply to the command of the Lord because he will still possess the old uncircumcised stubborn hostile heart of flesh. This is why, regeneration MUST precede faith. This is why, we say Biblical faith is a gift - for it is something that's freely given by God for those of whom He has particularly favored beforehand and as of result predestined before the foundation of the world to sonship by the 'means of faith' having been not given nor acquired by merit or entitled and likewise without repayment just the same - the very definition of a Gift!

By Aaron Fisher 

Thursday, October 12, 2023

Does "foreknowledge" necessitate Determinism?

Leighton Flowers denies the scriptural argument that the reason why God knows what will occur is because He has predetermined what will occur or that God's foreknowledge of future events is based upon an eternal decree. If the overall purpose of God is fulfilled by the evil intensions of the creature - then how is the creature "free" as to do other than what God has already planned involving the creature as to fulfill His purpose since God's plan precedes His purposes and is the very reason His purposes are fulfilled? How can the creature escape God's decree or predetermined plan that is essential in fulfilling His "good purposes" that Leighton speaks of?


However Sir, in spite of your assertion; the obvious question still remains based upon your logic - if, "God is capable of knowing and using free creatures with sinful intentions to accomplish His good purposes without decreeing their evil intentions" as you claim - then does the "free creature" still have the freedom to do other than what God already knows beforehand what he will do seeing that His "good purposes" involving man derive from a predetermined plan which in return is non-contradictory to what He already knows beforehand? If the entirety of God's plan is determined before creation then everything that occurs proceeding or because of his plan has to be predetermined in order that His purposes according to His plan might be fulfilled.

I'm arguing, If God knew beforehand that the "free will" creature would do X, then what God already knew could never contradict OR not be contingent upon His predetermined plan for the creature to do X - because creature X would be fulfilling the purpose of God in doing X based upon God's eternal plan that had been already established. Therefore what God knew creature X would do beforehand as to fulfill His "good purpose" was based upon an already established predetermined plan. God knows what will occur because He has already predetermined what will occur unless those such as yourself who oppose such an view is prepared to argue that what God knows beforehand as it relates to His purposes being fulfilled somehow is not contingent upon His eternal plan which precedes those very same purposes being fulfilled.

In other words, those who oppose my conclusion must be prepared to argue that what God knows beforehand as it relates to His purposes being fulfilled (that the creature would do X) is not contingent upon His predetermined plan (that the creature would do X) that was before creation in order that His "good purpose" (involving the creature to do X) might be fulfilled - because in doing so they would have illogically and unscripturally established that what God knows beforehand is not contingent upon Him predetermining every occurrence in order to fulfill His "good purposes" BUT rather that somehow God's "good purposes" could come to pass soley based upon the will of the creature and what He already knew APART FROM and not based upon the very thing (His overall predetermined plan) that His purposes essentially derive from.

God plans; and His purposes come to fruition according to His plan - this is my argument. Therefore, His purposes involving man that come to pass are contingent upon what He has already established. It cannot be that the "good purposes" of God to which Leighton speaks of involving man can come to pass apart from the very plan of which His purposes procede and derive from; such a notion would be unbiblical, let alone illogical - for if man was "free" as to have the ability to always do other than what God foreknew what he would do then God's omniscience would be undermined and come into question. However, since man does not possess such an ability - then man can never do other than what God already knew what He would do. Therefore, since man can never do other than what God already knew - man's actions are based upon God's knowledge beforehand which is contingent upon God's decree or predetermined plan. Either way, man cannot escape from the "good purposes" of God in spite of his good or evil intension due to God's foreknowledge which is contingent upon His eternal decree. 

By Aaron Fisher 

Thursday, September 28, 2023

UNION WITH CHRIST.

Union with Christ aka "In Christ" -  Is based upon an unbreakable "possession" by the Father of a particular people that has been given to the Son from eternity past (ephesians 1:4) as to glorify Him. It is a union or possession unbreakable due to the fact that the Father has eternally and favorably loved a people as His own (ephesians 1:4-5) before time to the same degree as He has eternally loved His very own Son (john 17:22-23). God's ownership of a people before creation as to set them apart unto Himself for salvation; foreordaining them for redemption and the forgiveness of sins having been created in Christ Jesus and likewise foreordained unto good works is the very result of such an eternal union to which I speak of. Mind you, those who are in union with Christ as belonging to Him are His due to the Father's eternal love and are being kept by God's power and those kept are continuously dependent upon His love, faithfulness and power to remain in union as His.

In addition, God's elect have always been united or in union with Christ; for our union is also based upon belonging to Christ before the foundation of the world in an unbreakable relationship having been given to Him from the Father. There never was a "time" when we did not belong to Christ. Therefore, there never was a 'time' when we were not ultimately in union with Christ. However, as relating to 'time' - we are only momentarily separated from Christ as in a state of unbelief involving the plan of God as to be ultimately saved but this momentary separation does not mean we cease to belong to Him; as in union with Him. We still remain as Christ sheep regarding His relationship with and ownership of us; even in a state of unbelief OR even before our very own physical existence - as in, before creation.

By Aaron Fisher 


































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Monday, September 25, 2023

Blessed "in Christ" before creation with every "spiritual blessing" (ephes 1:3-5).

God blessed us "in Christ" with every spiritual blessing "before the foundation of the world" just as or in the sane manner that He chose us to be holy and blameless before Him which also was "before the foundation of the world". Essentially, God's blessings and His choosing of us were both "in Christ" before creation (vs 3-4). The blessing spoken of in verse 3 are simply for those whom God likewise chose in Christ before the foundation of the world.

(A) Blessed us (vs 3)
(B) In Christ (vs 3)
(C) with every spiritual blessing (vs 3)
(D) Just as or in the same manner to which God chose us in Him to be holy and blameless - before the foundation of the world (vs 4) 

THIS IS WHY:

The Apostle Paul goes on to say; that those whom God both blessed "in Christ" AND chose "in Christ" before the foundation of the world were likewise predestined before the foundation of the world to sonship AS TO receive these spiritual blessings upon having believed seeing that God initially had already blessed us by decree with such blessings "in Christ" before creation - indeed, having blessed us "in the Beloved".

(A) In love He predestined us (vs 5)
(B) According to the purpose of His will & to the praise of His glorious grace (vs 6)
(C) Which He has blessed us "in the beloved" before the foundation of the world (vs 6)

God blessed us with every spiritual blessing in the same manner that He chose us - both having been before the foundation of the world. Before creation is in regards to God's decree. However, God likewise predestined us for adoption to sons as to receive these blessings upon believing; having been already ours before creation to receive. This is why Paul goes on to state that we have redemption through Christ blood and the forgiveness of trespasses because these particular blessings are according to the "riches of His grace" which He "lavished" upon us. God's "lavishing of the richest of His grace" having been before creation is in relation to our redemption and forgiveness of sins "in time" or after creation once having believed.

By Aaron Fisher

Saturday, September 16, 2023

Middle Knowledge? As in Molinism ..... is simply unbiblical.


     God's decision to create could not be based upon 'middle knowledge' because middle knowledge consist of man having "free will". This notion, is an impossibility seeing that Christ as the Sacrificial Lamb is the central focus point of all that entails and surrounds God's decree. Furthermore, I argue the most essential and main components that would not only carry out (initiate) God's decree but also bring it to fruition and fulfillment - are the eternal Convents of God. The eternal purposes of God are dependent upon these Covenants. These Covenants are not eternal in the same manner as God; being without a beginning or end; but they are eternal in the sense that they are inseperately associated with Christ, the Sacrificial Lamb who was foreknown by the Father before the foundation of the world. The covenants are eternal in so far as Christ is eternal and if the Convents are eternal, then so is God's purposes which derive from God's Covenants.

     So, seeing that God's purposes are eternal and that they are from before creation and no one can thwart God's eternal purposes or plan, then it is also impossibility for man to have "free will". For if this was to be true, then it would be possible for man to indeed thwart the will and purposes of God as it relates to what God has solely or unilaterally determined to fulfill by way of these Covenants.

     What would be the purpose for God having or using Middle Knowledge 'before He decide' to create if there is no 'free wil'l to do other than what God has already purposed to come to pass? Would Middle Knowledge that God supposedly possesses have a purpose if there was no free will?

     What would be the purpose for God using Middle Knowledge 'before He decide' to create if there is actually no other circumstance that man would operate under, to do other than - what God has already determined? Would Middle Knowledge have a purpose if there was no other circumstance that man could operate under other than what God has predetermined?

NO!!!!!

This is why there is no such thing as middle knowledge in the scriptures for middle knowledge would not serve any purpose with God!

I argue,

     Can God know what man would do under other circumstances? Sure He could. But the question is how would He know? I argue God could only know what man would do under different circumstances if He has predetermined what man would do under different circumstances. There is no "free will". What God predetermine man would do, man will indeed do because God's predetermination is based upon His decree which entails His eternal purposes according to the plan of God evolving around His Son, the Sacrificial Lamb - for His Elect whom He promised eternal life to before time. So in light of God having the ability to know what man would do under different circumstances, this notion, that man would do different under different circumstances would not nor could not happen for the purposes and plan of God is unchanging or rather fixed based upon His eternal decree. Middle knowledge is therefore unbilical!

By Aaron Fisher 

Thursday, September 14, 2023

The DECREE OF GOD.

The DECREE of God - Is not so much as a command but rather a previous determination of God before the Creation of the world (acknowledging that God is not subject to time but eternal) of what would or rather will come to pass as of a CERTAINTY resulting from his divine councel and will relating to His eternal purposes that will glorify Himself in all things.

The eternal purposes of God are predetermined seeing that they are determined before creation or time. The predetermined purposes of God are based upon a predetermined plan. Both, the eternal purposes and plan of God are on both sides of the same coin; they cannot be separated. Both are DELIBERATE ESSENTIAL commitments of God in reaching the same end goal. Furthermore, they (God's plan and purposes) both come to pass, not only by the desire/intentions of God's heart but more importantly by the will or determination of God which hearkens back to what He has eternally PURPOSED TO FULFILL temporally 'in time' - that being, all that He has pre-planned deriving from His perfect counsel; hence, the Decree of God.

FOREKNOWLEDGE and DECREE

The Decree or the Eternal Purposes of God precedes the future exhaustive knowledge of God for the purposes of God derive from His predetermined plan. To clarify; this plan is NOT based upon what all God knows in advance that will transpire but RATHER based upon His divine counsel in regards to what He has determined before time to come to pass in order to reach a specific end goal for His own glory. For example, if God has based His decree upon what He knows so called 'free creatures' would do in advance - then their "liberty" to do as they will apart from God's meticulous control to govern what He has purposed would indeed rob God of the glory that's due Him alone; for the creature would have become a sovereign unto Himself - seemingly able to thwart the will, eternal purpose, and plan of God, his Creator.

NO PURPOSES OF GOD SHALL BE THWARTED.

The Example: If God has predetermined for Creature A to physically turn left in order to fulfill a specific and necessary purpose but Creature A upon his own volition has the ability to refrain from turning left and do otherwise (and without any outside influence, or coercion including God's power) - then Creature A inevitably also has the freedom and ability to physically turn right instead and essentially undermine the 'will' of God and His purposes. If God has predetermined for Creature A to turn left for His own purposes and glory and His decree does not come to pass because of the 'freewill' of Creature A - then Creature A is his own sovereign unto himself and may very well even boast regarding his liberty as to be a self willed stand alone ruler which in return will ultimately lead to the sin of exalted pride and self glory before his Maker. 

This type of liberty and self glory of the creature cannot be according to Scripture. Even though God has seemingly given man some since of liberty to do as he will; however, man does not live his life according to absolute freedom. Man can only do what God has confined him to, for His very own purposes; God has deemed it so, for He will not give His glory to another. No flesh will have the opportunity to boast before the Lord; God will give no such leeway to sinful creatures for the sake of His holy name. No flesh will glory in His presence!

The LORD nullifies the plan of nations; He frustrates the plans of peoples. The councel of the LORD stands forever, The plans of His heart from generation to generation. - PSALMS 33:10-11

By Aaron Fisher

Autonomous Creatures?

    Created creatures cannot be created as truly autonomously free in light of God's decree; His eternal plan and purposes, and not to mention His own glory which also reveals and define the character and nature of God Himself. If the character and nature of God could not be freely fully expressed in light of His complete divine meticulous sovereignty relating to what He has created, then we as human creatures could not ever know, regarding the true scriptural identity of the only self proclaiming living God who has always existed as one but yet three in persons (Yahweh) - and we could never rightfully worship Him as such as He is also properly deserving of our praise; for His true essence and being would be distorted through the lens of all things created by the creature if the scriptural revelation of Himself was denounced and hidden. I ask you, where is the glory of God to be found in such a notion as this? If you take away those things that make God out to be God; for example, such as His eternal decree, then the creatures view of God would not be based upon biblical actuality itself - for God is indeed Holy and sits above's the Heavens but nonetheless simultaneously meticulously governs His creation; those things upon the earth unto His own glory. If this was not the case - the so called "free creature" would be in danger by default as outright stealing or sharing the glory of God which is due to Him alone, hence; His praise according to His divine holiness or separateness. An eternal decree of God prevents such glory and boasting from what has been created; thus God's character is not maligned before man nor His holy name brought to a level of disrespect and ultimately blasphemy.

    In addition, it is an impossibility for God to create "free creatures" for God's glory will never nor could it ever be compromised as to be diminished by those things created because God's exaltation of Himself is both rightly and justly merited as Creator. And because of this truth, God does not lower His Majesty or Splendor for the sake of the creature. God is altogether glorious - "worthy is the Lord our God!" Furthermore, God's Majesty is founded in His attributes and His attributes are part of and consistent with His nature. Therefore, God cannot compromise the Majesty of who He is for the sake of the creature for this very thing would diminish His Being before all things created. Even so, just how could the creature exalt Himself higher than a being who is uncreated, eternal and likewise their maker? Again, this is an impossibility. For example, If man was "free" from God's decree to do otherwise, then he would have a reason to boast before the Lord; he would have become a sovereign (god) unto himself (ezekiel 28:2) possessing an ability to seemingly undo or thwart the will of the eternal God; but there is no other God or Creator besides Yahweh and so God ensures the impossibility of a "free" creature to do other than what God has predetermined leaving absolutely no room for sinful man to boast before Him. Even though God's glory could never actually be diminished in spite of the created being, He only ensures the impossibility of boasting for the sake of His name and I would also argue for the sake of the creature regarding ultimate judgement by establishing before creation an eternal decree distinguishing Himself as the only living and true God. Alone, to God be the glory!

By Aaron Fisher

Wednesday, September 13, 2023

God is UNABLE for it is IMPOSSIBLE for Him to create Libertarian Free Creatures!

God would not nor neither could He create a "libertarian free" creature. God's nature confines Him to His own holiness or separateness from those things that He has created. And because of this truth, although God may posses the ability to create, He remains unable to create a libertarian free creature; according to His own nature. Otherwise, you would have to ask yourself - who's freedom would ultimately triumph over the other's in regards to carrying out their own intended personal 'will' based upon their desires - the Creator or the creature

The mere fact the scriptures emphatically proclaims that God has ordained for Himself predetermined eternal purposes that must come to pass and that no man has the ability to thwart His plan or purpose - is a clear revelation that sinful man's will is undeniably not free. How can you have man with a presumably libertarian free will that is able to do other than what the scriptures say God has already predetermined to come to pass regarding His purposes?  Sinful man CANNOT! In light of this fact, there is no such thing as libertarian free will. Just as God's nature as Deity restricts Him from creating a libertarian free creature because of the eternal purposes He has already preordained to come to pass; likewise, sinful man is also restricted because of His nature as mortal leaving him with the impossibility to ever thwart the plan, purposes, and will of the eternal God! 

Furthermore, God's character, attributes, holiness, glory, majesty are all undermined by creating such creatures as to be so called "free" - these are the very things that set God apart from His creation. In addition, God's decree or His eternal purposes are in direct relation to His nature. As it relates to God's nature, when His attributes are brought fourth and made known; the beauty of His Majesty is then visible. God will not compromise or afford to the creature what solely belongs to God and Him alone; that being, His glory. God's glory is seen by way of revealing His attributes and His attributes are the complete personification of His nature. However, the process to which by God has chose to express His attributes according to His nature is based upon an eternal decree. What God has predetermined beforehand; that is, before creation by way of a decree is carried out "in time" to manifest His character. Therefore, God's nature itself won't allow him to do as such - create a "free" creature. Just as it is impossible for God to lie because of His own nature; His nature, likewise won't allow Him to create a free creature. Or in other words, He is unable to create free creatures because of His nature and as a result God's decree is necessary to substantiate this truth. For example, if God was to lie, then that would undermine His character and Being and all that the scriptures say He is not. So, if it was possible for God to create "free creatures" then this too would undermine His character and Being as well. God's character is in association with His self ascribed glory and His glory is associated with His Majesty or ALL that His Being is. And if these things are compromised because of the "free will" of the creature; then we have not the God of the scriptures.

There cannot be two sovereigns that reside in one sole universe. You won't find in scripture where the creature will ever prevail over the Creators will; no matter how much one might try. God is the only sovereign and by necessity; what He has predetermined before creation to take place after creation will always come to pass in spite of the will of the creature. The creature has no "free will" to do other than what God has already ordained to happen - period. If you deny the God of the scriptures to the point where He cannot fully express or reveal Himself as He sees fit as Sovereign then you end up with a God foreign to that of the scriptures. Even as defined by the scriptures themselves - literally a false God or a god like all others according to the vain imaginations of sinful men hearts. However, and with much praise; thanks be to God - there is only "One True God" who not only won't but is unable to create "free creatures" for the sake of His Being and His holy name. God will not share His glory with another as Creator due to the nature of who He truly is!

IN SHORT:

Since God has determined to reveal Himself to His creation by way of His attributes and His attributes are a complete personification of His nature; then it is impossible for God to create a "free will" creature seeing that His revealing of His attributes "in time" are based upon what He has already pre-determined beforehand to come to pass according to a divine plan; in spite of the actions of man because the fulfilment of His plans are not dependent upon man but soley on God who has promised. If the "free creature" could do other than what God has previously determined; then the creature would have made the God of scriptures out to be a liar. What God has (1) determined beforehand to bring to pass; (2) reveals His attributes; (3) which are the very essence of His nature; and cannot be compromised by the creature - for these three things are inseparable from one another as to rightly identify the ONE and true living God!. If just one of these inseparable distinguishing traits is interrupted or denied simply by the "will" of the creature; then we do not have the God of the Bible but a foreign god that we do not know.

LASTLY AND IN CONCLUSION,

We, students of the Scriptures have the privilege of learning and knowing about God's holy nature because of His attributes that are revealed in scripture. God reveals His attributes based upon what He has predetermined beforehand to occur in order that we may know of His nature in keeping with His eternal purposes. However, God revealing His attributes shows forth His glory. God's decree before creation according to His eternal purposes reveals His character after creation or "in time" that we may truly come to understand and know Him as it relates to what the scriptures asserts as the "depth of the riches and wisdom and knowledge of God" which demonstrates that His judgements are unsearchable and His ways are past finding out. No one has truly known the mind of the Lord nor been His counselor as to have first given to Him anything as to repaid back. ALL things are from Him, by Him and to Him for His glory; to Him be honor and glory forever!




By Aaron Fisher

So that the "world" may believe and know that you have sent me ~ Jesus Christ (John 17:21 and John 17:23)

It seems as though many Christians misunderstand when John says - "so that the world may believe and know that you sent me" regarding JOHN 17:21 and 17:23. They assume that the "world" spoken of is "all inclusive" - as in, including everyone without exception. However, a closer look will disprove such an interpretation. All one has to do is look at the context. Early on, when Jesus says "He's not praying for the world" - He was exclusively praying for the Apostles APART FROM those who will believe through their word (some several verses later). So when Jesus states that - "I do not ask for these (Apostles) only, but also for those will believe in me through their word" - He has NOW included the "WORLD" of all those given to Him; going beyond just the Apostles regarding His prayer (john 17:20). A very crucial and necessary point - So when Jesus states, "so that the world may believe" - He is referencing those who will believe (I do not ask for these only) regarding His prayer which goes beyond just the Apostles. In other words; the very ones Jesus additionally prays for (john 17:20) are of the "world" that has believed that the Father sent the Son. When Jesus mentions the "world" - he is NOT referring to an additional group of people other than for whom Jesus has prayed (john 17:20). NO. The "world" that has believed that the Father sent the Son (vs 21) are the very ones Jesus additionally prayed for (vs 20) having gone beyond just praying for the Apostles early on.

Likewise when Jesus says - "I in them and you in me, that they may become perfectly one, so that the 'world' may know that you sent me and loved them even as you love me" - He is referring to the very same ones He additionally has prayed for (john 17:20) having gone beyond just praying for the Apostles; those given to Him BUT have simply now included the "world" of all those given to Him as well. Mind you, when Jesus prayed soley for the Apostles; He prayed that they may "be one" even as the Son and the Father are one too (17:11). However, now, His prayer has gone beyond the Apostles and into the "world". The same ones Jesus has additionally prayed for (john 17:20) are the very same ones He now prays for that they too may become "perfectly one" along with the Apostles (john 17:23). So that - the "world" (of whom Jesus additionally prayed for, vs 20) may know that you sent me and loved them even as you loved me. The "world" of those who will believe and know that the Father sent the Son is the "world" of those that has been given to Him and that Jesus additionally has prayed for (vs 20), - again, having gone beyond "just" praying for the Apostles. The "world" in question who may believe and know that the Father sent the Son is in reference to those Jesus additionally has prayed for (I do not ask for these only) NOT some additional group of people of the "world" who were NEVER given to the Son nor EVER had the promise of Eternal Life; such an argument is read into the text. Many Christians want to make the "world" spoken of in 17:21 and 17:23 as relating to a group of people other than those given to the Son having the Promise of Eternal Life. However, when Jesus states - "so that the world may believe and know that you sent me; it is always in reference to those given to the Son and have the Promise of Eternal Life. No one outside or beyond this group of people have the possibility of ever obtaining Eternal Life. You must be given to the Son in order to obtain eternal life (john 17:2). Everyone is not given; therefore everyone will not obtain life.

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(1) I am praying for them (the Apostles only). I am not praying for the world (excluding everyone else) but for those whom you have given me for they are yours - VERSE 9

(2) I do not ask for these (the Apostles) only but also for those (of the world) who will believe in me through their (the Apostles) word, that they (those of the world who Christ additionally prays for going beyond just the Apostles, vs 20) may all be one just as you Father are in me and I in you, that they (those of the world who Christ additionally prays for going beyond just the Apostles, vs 20) also may be in us so that the world (not just the Apostles of whom Christ initially prayed for but those of the world whom Christ additionally prayed for, 20) may believe that you sent me - VERSE 20-21

(3) I in them and you in me, that they (those of the world who Christ additionally prays for going beyond just the Apostles, vs 20) may become perfectly one, so that the world (not just the Apostles of whom Christ initially prayed for but those of the world whom Christ additionally prayed for, 20) may know that you sent me and loved them (those of the world who Christ additionally prays for going beyond just the Apostles, vs 20) even as you loved me. Father, I desire that they (not just the Apostles of whom Christ initially prayed for but those of the world whom Christ additionally prayed for, 20) also whom you haven given me (those Christ additionally prayed for, vs 20) may be with me where i am to see my glory that you have given me because you loved me before the foundation of the world - VERSE 23-24

CONCLUSION:

Those of whom Christ additionally prays for (vs 20) are the "world" OR of the "world" that Christ speaks of - "so that the 'world' may believe you sent me. The very ones Christ additionally prays for (vs 20) are the same ones who will believe "of the world" that the Father sent the Son (vs 21,23, and 25); not some additional group of people not spoken of in the text other than those given to the Son (vs 2, 9, 10, 12, and 24). 

By Aaron Fisher