A child's state of so called "innocence" is NOT a criteria nor factor regarding their possible salvation - only the mercy of God!

                                                          

There is a popular teaching among Christian circles that a newborn or young child who unfortunately happens to die prematurely is somehow entitled to inherit salvation due to the so called "innocence" of the child not having enough acquired knowledge as to not only discern good from evil but also enough acquired knowledge as to reject evil and choose the good. However, first and foremost, such an assertion would presume that every infant or young child has been favorably blessed by God as to partake and benefit of the New Covenant and the spiritual blessings which derive from it; which gives life to the spiritually dead as Christ sheep (hebrews 13:20, 2 corinthians 3:6). Secondly, another major delimmna; is that God has predetermined as in chosen prior to one's birth all of everyone who has been foreordained to inherit salvation and that ones salvation is not dependent upon any criteria on the individual's part; apart from whom God has predetermined to show mercy to beforehand (romans 9:11). So, in order for any individual to argue that an infant or young child is "entitled" to inherit salvation due to their so called state of "innocence" - one must likewise 'successfully' demonstrate this assertion biblically from scripture that such an entitlement of salvation is "indeed" a "factor" regarding God's decision or determination to have mercy upon a child who dies prematurely and likewise chooses them prior to their birth for glory in order for such an assertion to be scripturally accurate. 

On the other hand, I believe the scriptures has clearly stated that God chose specific individuals prior to their birth as to not regard any specific good deed OR evil deed of which they had not done as of yet OR will do - involving His prerogative to save whom He wills (romans 9:11). Therefore, if God did not take into account any good deed; let alone any evil deed; then one's "innocence" is not a factor in His determination to save - seeing that such an assertion of a child's so called "innocence" would surely suggest that an infant or young child is not capable of doing anything good or bad "as of yet" as a factor. The true biblical doctrine of Election rules out such a criteria of "innocence" of entitlement for salvation because God has determined to have mercy upon His elect not taking into account prior to one's birth any evil that a infant or young child who prematurely dies after birth may or may not or even could have committed (romans 9:11). God's saves in spite of the sins committed of His elect; therefore neither a child or an adult sin's for that matter; is a factor in the salvation of His chosen ones. Therefore, the so called "innocence" of a child is entirely ruled out regarding the salvation of God's people because an infant or young child's state of "innocence" implies potential future guilt regarding acts of evil and God has neither elected His people on the basis of committed acts of evil or committed acts of good BUT only on the basis of His prerogative prior to one's birth to have mercy upon whom He wills!

By Aaron Fisher 

Vessels of Mercy "Prepared Beforehand or In Advance for Glory" (ROMANS 9:22-23)? "Beforehand" or the Greek "Proetoimazó"

                                    

If God determined to save someone prior to their birth as a vessel of mercy; then in doing so and as a consequence - they, by default, have been technically "prepared beforehand or in advance for glory! And if the Children of Promise are considered to be the Children of God; then when God foretold of Issac's future birth as the Child of Promise and elected Jacob prior to his birth also as a Child of Promise; then God was essentially declaring beforehand as in before they both were born that they were already considered as Children of God by decree - even prior to their birth. Their salvation was inevitable even prior to their actual birth!

A simple outline with commentary as to "disect" the passage of ROMANS 9 in question.

(1) The Children of Promise ARE the Children of God (vs 8)

(2) Issac was foretold to be the "Child of Promise" prior to his birth (vs 9)

(3) Jacob was elected prior to his birth IN ORDER THAT God's purpose of ELECTION might continue (vs 10 and 11).

(4) However, the Children of Promise ARE God's Elect. The two terms can be used interchangeably. You can't speak of the one without acknowledging the other (vs 8 and 11).

(5) Issac, the Child of Promise aka God's Elect (vs 8 and 9)

(6) Jacob, God's Elect aka the Child of Promise (vs 10-12)

(7) The "vessels of mercy prepared beforehand for glory" ARE the Children of Promise aka God's Elect

(8) Both Issac AND Jacob were considered to be "vessels of mercy" because they both were deemed as a Children of Promise aka God's Elect prior to their birth. Every Child of Promise receives saving mercy. However, God determined to bestow saving mercy upon both Issac and Jacob before they were born as a Child of Promise aka God's Elect upon setting them apart unto Himself.

(9) This is the very reason why Paul could say that the "vessels of mercy" were "prepared beforehand for glory" - because both Isaac and Jacob received saving mercy from God before each of them was even born as a Child of Promise aka God's Elect. Their salvation was inevitable. They were essentially prepared beforehand for glory by way of God's saving mercy bestowed upon them prior to their birth as a consequence. This would be the correct understanding according to the context.

(10) However, not only were Issac and Jacob prepared beforehand or in advance for glory prior to their birth BUT every would be Child of Promise aka God's Elect as well (galatians 4:28). This is why the Apostle Paul cold claim that the Word of God has not failed because it was NEVER God's intention to save every Israelite or even Gentile for that matter - only the Children of Promise.

(11) Lastly, if God deemed Issac and Jacob as a Child of Promise aka God's Elect prior to their birth and their salvation is inevitable because of this fact as I have demonstrated; then it would deem logical if not biblical (for argument sake) to conclude that they were "prepared beforehand for glory" because of the predetermined actions by God correct?

By Aaron Fisher

 

Provisionalism, Pelagianism AND the Biblical Truth!

[In love] God [predestined] us for [adoption to himself as sons] through Jesus Christ, according to the purpose of his will, [to the praise of his glorious grace], with which he has [blessed us in the Beloved] - Ephesians 2:5-6

Leighton Flowers outright dissociates himself from Pelagianism or even Semi Plaginism for that matter. However both Pelagianism and Semi-Pelagianism do acknowledge as not to reject God's "grace". Nonetheless, Pelagianism, Semi-Pelagianism AND Provisionalism do indeed reject God's grace. They reject God's "initial" or "primary" grace that preceded creation itself. This grace or unmerited favor of God was predetermined towards a particular people by decree unto faith. This particular grace was brought forth in love as to predestine a people before the foundation of the world unto adoption as sons aka believers in God. And if predestined to adoption as sons; then those predestined were by default foreordained to believe - to the exclusion of the "rest of mankind" of whom God did not predestine. Therefore, by the Provisionist own acknowledgement - they fit the religious category of Pelagianism or even Semi Plaginism for argument sake because they unequivocally deny God's grace; the very grace that preceded creation itself!

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Saving Grace is a Unique and Particular Grace that's not granted to all men but Only a select few; God's Elect (Ephesians 2:4-10). 

SAVING GRACE is a particular grace that's not granted to all men but only a chosen few whom God has predetermined to unmeritly favor in regards to their salvation. This grace is distinct from all other graces bestowed by God seeing that only a select group can benefit from this unique grace. We see this confirmation of such grace particularly in Ephesians Chapter 1 and 2. The saving grace the Apostle Paul speaks of (ephesians 2:4-10) is in conjunction with Gods choosing and predestining before the foundation of the world a particular people as adopted sons to be holy and blameless (ephesians 1:4-5). Therefore, this particular grace rules out the "rest of mankind" (eph.1:3) or "sons of disobedience" whom God has left to remain in their sins being still deserving of wrath (ephesians 5:5-12) from ever benefitting from such grace.

In order for the "rest of mankind" or the "sons of disobedience" that God has passed over as to remain in their sins to benefit from this unique and particular saving grace - then they too must have been chosen in Christ and predestined as well before the foundation of the world to partake of any and such spiritual blessing (ephesians 1:3). Furthermore, those of whom God neither chose or predestined before creation also would have to been among those for whom Jesus had died for (ephesians 5:1-2) in order for them to be redeemed by His blood and their sins forgiven (ephesians 1:7) of which they were not. To argue otherwise, would be to undermine the love of God for a specific people unto His own glory and to assert or demand that God must love everyone as in all without exception in the very same manner for He only "in love" predestined before the foundation of the world those whom He foreknew; a particular people for His own glory while passing over the rest. Furthermore, to also argue against God having chose and predestined a select people unto salvation would call into question His wisdom, counsel, and judgement as if they are somehow flawed or misguided and not considered perfect in and of themselves seeing that God is perfect in all His ways as Paul goes on to rightly proclaim (ephesians 1:8-10). The grace or favor of God is only extended towards a select few of whom He has both foreknew and foreloved.

By Aaron Fisher

Children of Wrath by Nature (ephesians 2:3)?

Regarding, EPHESIANS 2:3 - the "nature" to which Paul is referring to is with respect to the flesh of man from birth (john 3:6); it is of the "old man" as an unbeliever (colossians 3:9 and ephesians 4:22).

Everyone born, is born as an unbeliever according to sinful flesh. When Jesus said 'that which is BORN of flesh is flesh' - He was referring to sinful flesh (john 3:6). This is why Paul states that God sent His Son in the likeness of sinful flesh - in reference to the "sin nature" of all humanity (romans 8:3). 

Jesus came in the likeness of sinful flesh in order to condemn the power of sin upon the cross which permeates the flesh of man; as in total depravity, to which we are born under. You cannot separate one's nature from his flesh. Although, I agree, that "by nature" is in reference to "habitual sinful conduct" according to the specific Greek word that is used and it's context.

However, what many fail to realize is that this "habitual sinful conduct" is spoken of as the 'default' position of man who is born of sinful flesh; for man born of mere flesh can only obey sin and the sinful desires of the heart (romans 6:12-14) according to the 'nature' spoken of in Ephesians 2:3. The sinful flesh of man can ONLY bear fruit which leads to spiritual death (romans 7:5). Sinful man, from birth, is UNABLE to obey God in righteousness apart from the work of the Spirit that would enable him to do so (romans 7:4-6).

This is why we ALL come out of our mother's wound deserving God's wrath for we are deemed sinners from birth (romans 5:18-19) unable to do otherwise apart from imputed righteousness. There is no condemnation for those who are "in Christ" but for those who are not "in Christ" - eternal punishment justly awaits. We are not born "in Christ" but rather "in Adam" deserving God's wrath because we are born as "sons of disobedience" according to our nature (ephesians 2:1-3). We are ALL born as unbelievers from birth, as the 'old man' in Adam according to sinful flesh, deserving God's wrath - this is the testimony of scripture!

In other words, those deserving of God's wrath or children of God's wrath the Apostle Paul is referring to (ephesians 2:3) are those in an unbelieving state and if in an unbelieving state; then they are still "in Adam" as the "old man" and if they are considered to still be of the "old man" then they are likewise still of the flesh to which they were born that can only bear fruit unto death. Those who are merely of the flesh and have not been "born again" - CANNOT please God; including newborn infants and young children. God would be 'just' condemning ALL not found to be in Christ but still in Adam at judgement.

Nature (ephesians 2:3): Unbeliever = Old Man = In Adam = From Birth = Sinful flesh by default that can only bear fruit unto spiritual death = Deserving of God's Wrath 

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SEE ALSO - The TWO NATURE'S of MANKIND (the old and new man).

CLICK LINK: The TWO NATURE'S of MANKIND (the old and new man).

By Aaron Fisher 

Babies born sinful according to scripture? What does God's Word actually teach?

 

Scripture states that God sent His Son in the likeness of SINFUL FLESH (romans 8:3). Question. Is this "flesh" spoken of in (romans 8:3) a reference to newly born babies as well? YES! Jesus has declared (john 3:6) that which is born of flesh (same Greek word regarding romans 8:3) is flesh and that which is born of Spirit is Spirit. Therefore, since newborn babies are born to the same "sinful" flesh that Jesus was sent into the world in the likeness of - infants along with every other class of people are born with a sinful nature just the same - for you cannot separate ones nature (innate natural desires) and ones flesh (sinful desires and works of sinful flesh) from one another; the two are inseparable. For example, if ones flesh is sinful; then ones nature is as well. Babies are born in sin; with a sin nature - deserving of God's wrath along with the rest of mankind simply because of their nature alone to which we are all born to. Mere flesh cannot enter the Kingdom of God; one must be born again - including infants if they are indeed to enter into the Kingdom at all. This is why Ephesians 2:3 speaks of the very nature of which man is born to as deserving of God's wrath because we are born sinful or as sinners in spite of having not done any evil deeds as of yet because our default disposition as a sinner when born is considered to be a slave to sin as to only obey unrighteousness. The very nature to which we are born can ONLY bear fruit which leads to death (romans 7:5). Therefore, the only fruit that any human being can bear according to their sinful nature would lead to condemnation apart from becoming born again. Man's very nature alone to which he was born is enough to send that person to the Lake of Fire. Sure, the scriptures state that mankind will be judged according to our works; however if one is not able to bear good fruit from any works according to their sinful nature; regardless of whatever defining characteristic you may put forth or assign to the individual - that person will still be condemned because that person while in his flesh apart from any works could NEVER bear fruit to please God nonetheless because of his nature. The unclean or impure according to sinful flesh to which we are born can't inherit the Kingdom of God; including newborn babies. The "nature" of the sinful baby must be changed in order for that baby to enter the Kingdom - and if the baby's nature must be changed; then prior to the change of that baby's nature; that baby by default could not enter the Kingdom but rather perish as to enter the Lake of Fire along with the rest of wicked sinners.

A FURTHER ARGUMENTATION

There is no condemnation for all those who are "in Christ" - ROMANS 8:1. Therefore, God has the right to judge everyone who is not "in Christ" but are yet still "in Adam" - including babies. Apart from any works; that being good or evil - that baby is still considered to be a sinner (ROMANS 5:19). Newborn babies are born into the world as a "sons of disobedience" (EPHESIANS 2:2) for this is his or her standing or status in the world; as a sinner. Furthermore, scripture declares God has a right to fashion some individuals as vessels of dishonor having been prepared beforehand (before they are born) for destruction; even though ALL OF MANKIND indeed stands condemned already. Consider Esau; his fate was sealed before he was born. If God sealed Esau's fate before he was born; then what's the difference between a baby that's already condemned prior to having been born and the condemnation beforehand for example of an unbelieving elderly individual having been born as well but who lived a long life but who's deeds are still considered evil nonetheless? There is no difference! They both are still considered to be sinners and they both will be condemned as sinners - one having been condemned without works as a sinner (newborn baby) and the other being condemned according to their works as a sinner (elderly individual); and rightfully so. There is no injustice with God; he has the right to fashion each vessel as He sees fit. If a baby is to be condemned; then that baby will be condemned as one who is a sinner without works having not been chosen beforehand prior to it's birth unto salvation. In order for you to argue against my position; then you would have to explain biblically - how is it possible for a baby who is found not to be "in Christ" when born be something other than as to not stand condemned before God as not "in Christ" but still "in Adam" upon their death on judgement day?

By Aaron Fisher 

John 8 (God's Elect, the Children of Promise, and the Reprobate)

Can any of you prove me guilty of sin? If I am telling the truth, why don’t you believe me? Whoever belongs to God hears what God says. The reason you do not hear is that you do not belong to God.” - JOHN 8:46-47

At the onset, Jesus had acknowledged that these particular Jews were physical descendants of Abraham (john 8:37) but he denounced the idea that they were indeed spiritual descendants of Abraham according to faith in God (john 8:39-42) - as in the children of Promise; being those given to Him from the Father. Jesus understood that these particular Jews had been predestined to disobey the word of the Lord and to stumble over the stumbling stone as to perish; seeing that Christ Himself was that very stone - a rock of offense (isaiah 8:13-15, luke 20:17-18, matthew 21:42,1peter 2:6-8, and romans 9:32). This is why he asserted that the slave doesn't remain in the house forever; the son does (john 8:35). The slave or hired hand has no inheritance regarding the household of which he serves; the inheritance of the Father belongs to the natural born son. However, Christ was using this biblical fact to reveal to these Jews that they too were not considered to be sons of God as to have an inheritance because they were not given to Him as heirs according to the promise made to Abraham (genesis 17:7 and galatians 3:29). For it was not granted unto them to believe; this privilege is only reserved for those given to Christ; His sheep. These particular Jews in John 8 did not belong to God nor were among Christ sheep; if they were then they would have believed having been predestined as Children of Promise beforehand (genesis 17:7).

Mind you, Jesus denounced these Jews to be spiritual descendants of Abraham (which would have been demonstrated by their faith) PRIOR TO them actually having believed to indeed confirm the fact that the son of the slave woman (as not belonging to the Abrahamic Covenant) shall not share in the inheritance of the privileged son (child of promise) of the free woman (galatians 4:30) who indeed is of or truly belongs to the Abrahamic Covenant (Genesis 17:7). The son of the slave woman remains in spiritual bondage but the son of the free woman is set free from sin and his final destination is Jerusalem which is above (galatians 4:22-31). The Abrahamic Covenant promises salvation to all who belong to it; a particular group of people of whom God has chosen beforehand (genesis 17:7). God had promised beforehand to Abraham to be God to a particular people who would be forgiven and reconciled back to Him in right standing through His Son Jesus Christ. Therefore, salvation is inevitable for some and not others; for these particular group of people are namely; the Children of Promise who are to be saved. Not everyone is a child of promise; if so, then everyone would ultimately be saved. So, seeing that it is impossible for everyone to be considered a "child of promise" then it's likewise impossible for everyone  as in "all without exception" to ever come to saving faith. Furthermore, it is also impossible for anyone according to their "free will" to believe apart from already having been given to the Son prior to. Free will is not a factor in one's salvation; only the mercy and grace of God that was predetermined only toward the children of promise (romans 4:11-18 and hebrews 6:13-20). This is what is occuring in John 8. These particular Jews would not believe because they were not foreordained to believe. They were not of God's Elect. They were not the children of promise. They were in fact considered to be the reprobate of the Jews; those of whom God has passed over from birth for salvation (romans 9:11,13).

Jesus confirmed that it was impossible for these Jews to ever believe as to be saved; therefore their damnation was certain (romans 9:22). He acknowledged that they did not belong to God; therefore they were not to be counted as the spiritual descendants of Abraham who were promised to Him as heirs; the children of promise. For it is the privileged son who remains in God's house forever; not the child of the slave woman who was passed over as not belonging to the Abrahamic Covenant as to share in the inheritance. John 8 is a clear example as to prove; it is only those given to the Son beforehand that will believe and be saved - while excluding all others. No one can be saved apart from already belonging to the Abrahamic Covenant beforehand - proving that it is an impossibility for everyone as in all without exception to be saved; especially according to the so called "free will" of man. Those who will indeed perish - it is understood that they will have proven themselves to be reprobate.

By Aaron Fisher 

Does "foreknowledge" necessitate Determinism?

Leighton Flowers denies the scriptural argument that the reason why God knows what will occur is because He has predetermined what will occur or that God's foreknowledge of future events is based upon an eternal decree. If the overall purpose of God is fulfilled by the evil intensions of the creature - then how is the creature "free" as to do other than what God has already planned involving the creature as to fulfill His purpose since God's plan precedes His purposes and is the very reason His purposes are fulfilled? How can the creature escape God's decree or predetermined plan that is essential in fulfilling His "good purposes" that Leighton speaks of?

However Sir, in spite of your assertion; the obvious question still remains based upon your logic - if, "God is capable of knowing and using free creatures with sinful intentions to accomplish His good purposes without decreeing their evil intentions" as you claim - then does the "free creature" still have the freedom to do other than what God already knows beforehand what he will do seeing that His "good purposes" involving man derive from a predetermined plan which in return is non-contradictory to what He already knows beforehand? If the entirety of God's plan is determined before creation then everything that occurs proceeding or because of his plan has to be predetermined in order that His purposes according to His plan might be fulfilled.

I'm arguing, If God knew beforehand that the "free will" creature would do X, then what God already knew could never contradict OR not be contingent upon His predetermined plan for the creature to do X - because creature X would be fulfilling the purpose of God in doing X based upon God's eternal plan that had been already established. Therefore what God knew creature X would do beforehand as to fulfill His "good purpose" was based upon an already established predetermined plan. God knows what will occur because He has already predetermined what will occur unless those such as yourself who oppose such an view is prepared to argue that what God knows beforehand as it relates to His purposes being fulfilled somehow is not contingent upon His eternal plan which precedes those very same purposes being fulfilled.

In other words, those who oppose my conclusion must be prepared to argue that what God knows beforehand as it relates to His purposes being fulfilled (that the creature would do X) is not contingent upon His predetermined plan (that the creature would do X) that was before creation in order that His "good purpose" (involving the creature to do X) might be fulfilled - because in doing so they would have illogically and unscripturally established that what God knows beforehand is not contingent upon Him predetermining every occurrence in order to fulfill His "good purposes" BUT rather that somehow God's "good purposes" could come to pass soley based upon the will of the creature and what He already knew APART FROM and not based upon the very thing (His overall predetermined plan) that His purposes essentially derive from.

God plans; and His purposes come to fruition according to His plan - this is my argument. Therefore, His purposes involving man that come to pass are contingent upon what He has already established. It cannot be that the "good purposes" of God to which Leighton speaks of involving man can come to pass apart from the very plan of which His purposes procede and derive from; such a notion would be unbiblical, let alone illogical - for if man was "free" as to have the ability to always do other than what God foreknew what he would do then God's omniscience would be undermined and come into question. However, since man does not possess such an ability - then man can never do other than what God already knew what He would do. Therefore, since man can never do other than what God already knew - man's actions are based upon God's knowledge beforehand which is contingent upon God's decree or predetermined plan. Either way, man cannot escape from the "good purposes" of God in spite of his good or evil intension due to God's foreknowledge which is contingent upon His eternal decree. 

By Aaron Fisher 

Blessed "in Christ" before creation with every "spiritual blessing" (ephes 1:3-5).

God blessed us "in Christ" with every spiritual blessing "before the foundation of the world" just as or in the sane manner that He chose us to be holy and blameless before Him which also was "before the foundation of the world". Essentially, God's blessings and His choosing of us were both "in Christ" before creation (vs 3-4). The blessing spoken of in verse 3 are simply for those whom God likewise chose in Christ before the foundation of the world.

(A) Blessed us (vs 3)

(B) In Christ (vs 3)

(C) with every spiritual blessing (vs 3)

(D) Just as or in the same manner to which God chose us in Him to be holy and blameless - before the foundation of the world (vs 4) 

THIS IS WHY:

The Apostle Paul goes on to say; that those whom God both blessed "in Christ" AND chose "in Christ" before the foundation of the world were likewise predestined before the foundation of the world to sonship AS TO receive these spiritual blessings upon having believed seeing that God initially had already blessed us by decree with such blessings "in Christ" before creation - indeed, having blessed us "in the Beloved".

(A) In love He predestined us (vs 5)

(B) According to the purpose of His will & to the praise of His glorious grace (vs 6)

(C) Which He has blessed us "in the beloved" before the foundation of the world (vs 6)

God blessed us with every spiritual blessing in the same manner that He chose us - both having been before the foundation of the world. Before creation is in regards to God's decree. However, God likewise predestined us for adoption to sons as to receive these blessings upon believing; having been already ours before creation to receive. This is why Paul goes on to state that we have redemption through Christ blood and the forgiveness of trespasses because these particular blessings are according to the "riches of His grace" which He "lavished" upon us. God's "lavishing of the richest of His grace" having been before creation is in relation to our redemption and forgiveness of sins "in time" or after creation once having believed.

By Aaron Fisher

What Does "In Christ" Scripturally Means?

In short - In Christ, is essentially union with Christ based upon the giving of a particular people to the Son; whom the Father both foreknew and foreloved before time or before creation. The term "In Christ", is not limited to having believed relating to time or the temporal but rather a sense of belonging to or a possession of a people; who in return has been set apart for salvation to the praise and glory of God from eternity past.

In addition, when scripture speaks of sheep belonging to Christ even while they are in a state of unbelief (john 6:39-40, john 10:16, and 1 peter 2:25) they nonetheless are still in union with Christ for they belong to Him as sheep who will eventually hear the voice of their Shepherd as to be saved. In fact, this union has been revealed to have existed before the foundation of the world. This is why when Paul states that God chose "us" in Christ before creation (ephesians 1:4); we essentially had already been given to Christ from the Father; prior to the foundation of the world. In other words, we already belonged to Christ; as being "in Christ" - even from eternity past.

By Aaron Fisher

God's Eternal Perspective / Chose In Christ, Before The Foundation of the World.

The Apostle Paul said that the Ephesian believers were chose as already "in Christ" before the foundation of the world to be holy and blameless; so their being in Christ wasn't necessarily dependent upon them believing but rather ultimately dependent upon God who chose and predestined them having already been in Christ when He did so - because before the foundation of the world there was an absence of the concept of time; therefore God sees those whom He has chose and predestined as already "in Christ" for He is not bound by time nor a chronological order of events as we are since He is eternal. God can call a people (His Elect) into existence before the foundation of the world by Decree and having been so absolute or certain of their existence; He considered or counted them as already existing even before they actually physically existed (romans 4:17).

God's "eternal perspective" is His divine vantage point being outside of and not bound by time; for He transcends it. This is why He can proclaim that believers are (1) ALREADY seated with Christ in the heavenly places (ephesians 2:6) when we at present are physically not (2) ALREADY glorified (romans 8:30) when we at present are physically not (3) ALREADY raised with Christ (colossians 3:1) when we at present are physically not (4) and were ALREADY in Christ before the foundation of the world when God chose us (ephesians 1:4) because to Him being outside of and not bound by time these things have ALREADY taken place - not literally but certain to come pass. To God, those things that He has decreed before creation to come to pass are just as in the present as if the decree has already come to pass. 

God before creation, calls as of certainty a thing into being "before time" as to exist "in time" - although, certain to exist; as If it has already existed before creation (romans 4:17). Before time was created, what men perceive as reality at present already existed as a thing certain before anything was created to a God who is eternal. So we must realize that when the Apostle Paul claims that God has chose "us" as already in Christ before the foundation of the world while addressing believers regarding EPHESIANS 1:4; he is speaking from a position of eternity past or before time while not beholden to the concept of any chronological order of events as we are. This is why it's hard for us to understand the notion that we were already "in Christ" as an unbeliever or specifically even having not been born as of yet from God's viewpoint. Opponents of this view; accurately taught I trust - either avoid what the text literally says (God chose us in Christ before the foundation of the world) or just simply have a hard to explaining the plain text. At this point, let's consider this verse (ephesians 1:4) in it's converse as to perhaps even make what the Apostle Paul has said even more simplified - "before the foundation of the world God chose us in Christ". Essentially, Paul is arguing - that before the foundation of the world, God chose a particular people (us) who were already in Christ.. Those who disagree with the plain text as the Apostle Paul taught will ultimately have to explain; how is it possible for God to have chose "believers" before creation as most suggest is the correct understanding - when no one was even born before the foundation of the world at the 'time' of God's choosing; let alone at a 'time' when no one physically existed as of yet as well. 

It is my position that God chose specific individuals who were not in existence physically as of yet but as of a certainty according to His eternal decree will exist. When Paul states that God chose US "in Christ" in regards to Ephesians 1:4 - he was was NOT saying that God chose US "to be" in Christ. On the contrary, God's elect have ALWAYS been 'in Christ' from an eternal perspective; since God is not bound by time. And since God is not bound by time; He has the ability to speak whatever into existence as if it already exist for whatever God speaks and predetermines into existence it already exist from God's perspective because of its certainty to come into existence. This is why God can assert that those He has chose before the foundation of the world are ALREADY in Christ; even to the point of those He has chose not having existed as of yet. 

In addition, Paul is stating that God chose US in Christ before the foundation of the world as BELONGING to Christ; even from eternity past. Or, in other words; God chose US in Christ before the foundation of the world as a "union" between His people who did not physically exist as of yet and His Son; albeit as an union CERTAIN to come to fruition "in time" according to His decree which was "before time". What God has decreed before time or creation will inevitably come to pass as a thing undoubtedly certain after creation for those whom He has foreknew and loved beforehand. Christ UNION with the Father's elect has ALWAYS been; there NEVER was a 'time' when the Elect of God or the sheep of Christ did not belong to them both. This possession of a particular people is entirely based upon the decree of God. 

Lastly, we, as the elect of God existed eternally; however only in the mind and plan of God. Before creation; the plan of God was to always create a particular people for Himself that would be carried out over a period of time or after creation. In other words, there was never a "time" when God did not have a particular people in mind to create for His own glory. God chose a people for Himself before the 'concept' of time had been established; hence, God's elect eternally existed. Mind you, the same Greek word (pro 4253) is used as it relates to "before the foundation of the world" relating to both man and the Son of God (ephesians 1:4 and 1 peter 1:20). Even though, however, God's Elect and God's Son both eternally existed - God's Son existed as an uncreated being while God's Elect of course as created beings; there remains a distinction between the two. Furthermore, God foreknew both; His Son and His Elect as eternally existing having been both eternally beloved by the Father in a favorable sense as to glorify Him regarding Christ work of redemption for His people.

By Aaron Fisher 

Middle Knowledge? As in Molinism ..... is simply unbiblical.

     God's decision to create could not be based upon 'middle knowledge' because middle knowledge consist of man having "free will". This notion, is an impossibility seeing that Christ as the Sacrificial Lamb is the central focus point of all that entails and surrounds God's decree. Furthermore, I argue the most essential and main components that would not only carry out (initiate) God's decree but also bring it to fruition and fulfillment - are the eternal Convents of God. The eternal purposes of God are dependent upon these Covenants. These Covenants are not eternal in the same manner as God; being without a beginning or end; but they are eternal in the sense that they are inseperately associated with Christ, the Sacrificial Lamb who was foreknown by the Father before the foundation of the world. The covenants are eternal in so far as Christ is eternal and if the Convents are eternal, then so is God's purposes which derive from God's Covenants.

     So, seeing that God's purposes are eternal and that they are from before creation and no one can thwart God's eternal purposes or plan, then it is also impossibility for man to have "free will". For if this was to be true, then it would be possible for man to indeed thwart the will and purposes of God as it relates to what God has solely or unilaterally determined to fulfill by way of these Covenants.

     What would be the purpose for God having or using Middle Knowledge 'before He decide' to create if there is no 'free wil'l to do other than what God has already purposed to come to pass? Would Middle Knowledge that God supposedly possesses have a purpose if there was no free will?

     What would be the purpose for God using Middle Knowledge 'before He decide' to create if there is actually no other circumstance that man would operate under, to do other than - what God has already determined? Would Middle Knowledge have a purpose if there was no other circumstance that man could operate under other than what God has predetermined?

NO!!!!!

This is why there is no such thing as middle knowledge in the scriptures for middle knowledge would not serve any purpose with God!

I argue,

     Can God know what man would do under other circumstances? Sure He could. But the question is how would He know? I argue God could only know what man would do under different circumstances if He has predetermined what man would do under different circumstances. There is no "free will". What God predetermine man would do, man will indeed do because God's predetermination is based upon His decree which entails His eternal purposes according to the plan of God evolving around His Son, the Sacrificial Lamb - for His Elect whom He promised eternal life to before time. So in light of God having the ability to know what man would do under different circumstances, this notion, that man would do different under different circumstances would not nor could not happen for the purposes and plan of God is unchanging or rather fixed based upon His eternal decree. Middle knowledge is therefore unbilical!

By Aaron Fisher 

Possible Worlds? As in Molinism ....

     The teaching of some involving "Possible Worlds" is entirely unbiblical. This concept of "possible worlds" is foreign and not taught in scripture; it is a man made doctrine. The scriptures can't be broken (john 10:35). All that the Prophets and the Psalms spoke of MUST BE fulfilled. There is no other possible world; this world is the only world in the plan of God. Furthermore, there can't be the possibility of a so called another world for God has OBLIGATED HIMSELF to this world and this world alone; based upon His Eternal Covenants. He swore those Covenants with an UNBREAKABLE OATH. This particular world has always been the plan of God BEFORE CREATION. Christ was the Sacrificial Lamb foreknown by the Father before time. God's eternal plan regarding the Son cannot be altered; everything must take place as God has so decreed it - so there is no possibility of a another world that could come to pass. If so, then EVERYTHING that was predetermined to take place according to God's initial one and only decree would be obliterated and God's character and reputation would be in question as to who He truly is. God chose to reveal Himself in this world. God saw fit to only "actuate" this world to glorify Himself. 

     Besides the fact, seeing that God's wisdom, councel, judgements and ways are all perfect; how can there be any possibility of another world that could somehow be better than what is already claimed to be good and absolute (Genesis 1:31)? It's not like, the Triune God - Father, Son, and Holy Spirit were at odds with one another. No, the councel of the Godhead is perfect without any implication of disunity, confusion, or being betwixt and between but with complete clarity, certainty, mastery, preciseness, purposefulness and deliberateness . There is absolutely NO indecisiveness with God. From the beginning, there has been only one plan of God according to His decree before anything was created! Only ONE world!!!!

Molinism is just another attempt at a system to dethrone the sovereignty of God and elevate man's so called 'free will' in regards to his salvation.

By Aaron Fisher

Autonomous Creatures?

    Created creatures cannot be created as truly autonomously free in light of God's decree; His eternal plan and purposes, and not to mention His own glory which also reveals and define the character and nature of God Himself. If the character and nature of God could not be freely fully expressed in light of His complete divine meticulous sovereignty relating to what He has created, then we as human creatures could not ever know, regarding the true scriptural identity of the only self proclaiming living God who has always existed as one but yet three in persons (Yahweh) - and we could never rightfully worship Him as such as He is also properly deserving of our praise; for His true essence and being would be distorted through the lens of all things created by the creature if the scriptural revelation of Himself was denounced and hidden. I ask you, where is the glory of God to be found in such a notion as this? If you take away those things that make God out to be God; for example, such as His eternal decree, then the creatures view of God would not be based upon biblical actuality itself - for God is indeed Holy and sits above's the Heavens but nonetheless simultaneously meticulously governs His creation; those things upon the earth unto His own glory. If this was not the case - the so called "free creature" would be in danger by default as outright stealing or sharing the glory of God which is due to Him alone, hence; His praise according to His divine holiness or separateness. An eternal decree of God prevents such glory and boasting from what has been created; thus God's character is not maligned before man nor His holy name brought to a level of disrespect and ultimately blasphemy.

    In addition, it is an impossibility for God to create "free creatures" for God's glory will never nor could it ever be compromised as to be diminished by those things created because God's exaltation of Himself is both rightly and justly merited as Creator. And because of this truth, God does not lower His Majesty or Splendor for the sake of the creature. God is altogether glorious - "worthy is the Lord our God!" Furthermore, God's Majesty is founded in His attributes and His attributes are part of and consistent with His nature. Therefore, God cannot compromise the Majesty of who He is for the sake of the creature for this very thing would diminish His Being before all things created. Even so, just how could the creature exalt Himself higher than a being who is uncreated, eternal and likewise their maker? Again, this is an impossibility. For example, If man was "free" from God's decree to do otherwise, then he would have a reason to boast before the Lord; he would have become a sovereign (god) unto himself (ezekiel 28:2) possessing an ability to seemingly undo or thwart the will of the eternal God; but there is no other God or Creator besides Yahweh and so God ensures the impossibility of a "free" creature to do other than what God has predetermined leaving absolutely no room for sinful man to boast before Him. Even though God's glory could never actually be diminished in spite of the created being, He only ensures the impossibility of boasting for the sake of His name and I would also argue for the sake of the creature regarding ultimate judgement by establishing before creation an eternal decree distinguishing Himself as the only living and true God. Alone, to God be the glory!

By Aaron Fisher

God is UNABLE for it is IMPOSSIBLE for Him to create Libertarian Free Creatures!

God would not nor neither could He create a "libertarian free" creature. God's nature confines Him to His own holiness or separateness from those things that He has created. And because of this truth, although God may posses the ability to create, He remains unable to create a libertarian free creature; according to His own nature. Otherwise, you would have to ask yourself - who's freedom would ultimately triumph over the other's in regards to carrying out their own intended personal 'will' based upon their desires - the Creator or the creature? 

The mere fact the scriptures emphatically proclaims that God has ordained for Himself predetermined eternal purposes that must come to pass and that no man has the ability to thwart His plan or purpose - is a clear revelation that sinful man's will is undeniably not free. How can you have man with a presumably libertarian free will that is able to do other than what the scriptures say God has already predetermined to come to pass regarding His purposes?  Sinful man CANNOT! In light of this fact, there is no such thing as libertarian free will. Just as God's nature as Deity restricts Him from creating a libertarian free creature because of the eternal purposes He has already preordained to come to pass; likewise, sinful man is also restricted because of His nature as mortal leaving him with the impossibility to ever thwart the plan, purposes, and will of the eternal God! 

Furthermore, God's character, attributes, holiness, glory, majesty are all undermined by creating such creatures as to be so called "free" - these are the very things that set God apart from His creation. In addition, God's decree or His eternal purposes are in direct relation to His nature. As it relates to God's nature, when His attributes are brought fourth and made known; the beauty of His Majesty is then visible. God will not compromise or afford to the creature what solely belongs to God and Him alone; that being, His glory. God's glory is seen by way of revealing His attributes and His attributes are the complete personification of His nature. However, the process to which by God has chose to express His attributes according to His nature is based upon an eternal decree. What God has predetermined beforehand; that is, before creation by way of a decree is carried out "in time" to manifest His character. Therefore, God's nature itself won't allow him to do as such - create a "free" creature. Just as it is impossible for God to lie because of His own nature; His nature, likewise won't allow Him to create a free creature. Or in other words, He is unable to create free creatures because of His nature and as a result God's decree is necessary to substantiate this truth. For example, if God was to lie, then that would undermine His character and Being and all that the scriptures say He is not. So, if it was possible for God to create "free creatures" then this too would undermine His character and Being as well. God's character is in association with His self ascribed glory and His glory is associated with His Majesty or ALL that His Being is. And if these things are compromised because of the "free will" of the creature; then we have not the God of the scriptures.

There cannot be two sovereigns that reside in one sole universe. You won't find in scripture where the creature will ever prevail over the Creators will; no matter how much one might try. God is the only sovereign and by necessity; what He has predetermined before creation to take place after creation will always come to pass in spite of the will of the creature. The creature has no "free will" to do other than what God has already ordained to happen - period. If you deny the God of the scriptures to the point where He cannot fully express or reveal Himself as He sees fit as Sovereign then you end up with a God foreign to that of the scriptures. Even as defined by the scriptures themselves - literally a false God or a god like all others according to the vain imaginations of sinful men hearts. However, and with much praise; thanks be to God - there is only "One True God" who not only won't but is unable to create "free creatures" for the sake of His Being and His holy name. God will not share His glory with another as Creator due to the nature of who He truly is!

IN SHORT:

Since God has determined to reveal Himself to His creation by way of His attributes and His attributes are a complete personification of His nature; then it is impossible for God to create a "free will" creature seeing that His revealing of His attributes "in time" are based upon what He has already pre-determined beforehand to come to pass according to a divine plan; in spite of the actions of man because the fulfilment of His plans are not dependent upon man but soley on God who has promised. If the "free creature" could do other than what God has previously determined; then the creature would have made the God of scriptures out to be a liar. What God has (1) determined beforehand to bring to pass; (2) reveals His attributes; (3) which are the very essence of His nature; and cannot be compromised by the creature - for these three things are inseparable from one another as to rightly identify the ONE and true living God!. If just one of these inseparable distinguishing traits is interrupted or denied simply by the "will" of the creature; then we do not have the God of the Bible but a foreign god that we do not know.

LASTLY AND IN CONCLUSION,

We, students of the Scriptures have the privilege of learning and knowing about God's holy nature because of His attributes that are revealed in scripture. God reveals His attributes based upon what He has predetermined beforehand to occur in order that we may know of His nature in keeping with His eternal purposes. However, God revealing His attributes shows forth His glory. God's decree before creation according to His eternal purposes reveals His character after creation or "in time" that we may truly come to understand and know Him as it relates to what the scriptures asserts as the "depth of the riches and wisdom and knowledge of God" which demonstrates that His judgements are unsearchable and His ways are past finding out. No one has truly known the mind of the Lord nor been His counselor as to have first given to Him anything as to repaid back. ALL things are from Him, by Him and to Him for His glory; to Him be honor and glory forever!

By Aaron Fisher

Christ, the Propitiation for the sins of the "whole" world (1 john 2:2)?

Christ is the Propitiation, not only for our (Jews) sins, but for the sins of the whole world (including) Gentiles; but in particular - all those who were promised Eternal Life before creation/times eternal  1 John 2:2, 2:25, Titus 1:1-2 - God's Elect and the Lord's sheep. This is my premise.

-----------

I won't be exegeting all of 1 John - 5 John but I will examine and point out what is necessary to make my argument. First off, 1st, 2nd, 3rd, 4th, and 5th Chapter of 1st John is a follow up to what John had already wrote regarding the Gospel of John. Secondly, the Book of 1st John is written to CHRISTIANS!!! 

John is reminding the reader (believers) of what he wrote earlier in - the Gospel of John (Chapter 1 - 21). He had stated specifically why he wrote these five chapters - "so that you MAY KNOW you have eternal life" 1 John 5:13. Throughout these five chapters, John was challenging them as new believers to do what is right as newly born again children of God. He exhorted them to love and obey; but if anyone sinned - God was faithful to forgive sin upon confession of sin (1 John 1:8-10). John showed that if anyone continued to sin then they were really not born again after all. He made a distinction between the children of the devil and the children of God (1 John 3:10). John goes on to encourage the believers to 'love one another'. John also Warned them not to be like Cain, who belonged to the evil one and murdered his brother - letting them know if anyone hates his brethren is a murderer at heart. But rather we should willing to lay down our lives for one another by following Christ example toward us (1 John 3:11-24). John continued to challenge the believers to "test the Spirits, to see if they're from God." There are some denying that the Son came in the flesh; which is - the spirit of the antichrist (1 John 4:1-3). Lastly, John ends with stating "everyone who believes that Jesus is the Christ is born of God, and everyone who loves the Father loves everyone born of Him (5 John 1:1). This is how we know we love the children of God by obeying out his commands.

With all that said, I have demonstrated that 1 John was WRITTEN TO CHRISTIANS. So, when John states in 1 John 2:2 that "Christ is the propitiation for OUR sins, and NOT for OURS ONLY but ALSO for the SINS OF THE WHOLE WORLD - the "whole world" is best interpreted "the whole world, consisting of Jew and Gentile" - see John 11:45-52. Those who determine to interpret the "whole world" as ALL PEOPLE without exception has gravely mishandled the text and not understood John's intent. Not only is the "whole world" is in reference to Jew and Gentile but it is ALSO in reference to believers and/or all those who WILL BELIEVE; Jew and Gentile But IN PARTICULAR, Christ Sheep - those who were PROMISED ETERNAL LIFE (1 John 2:25, 5:11). In other words, Christ is the propitiation for all those who HAVE BELIEVED and all those who WOULD BELIEVE and THESE ARE Christ Sheep - those who BELONG to Him and have ALWAYS BELONGED to Him from eternity past (ephesians 1:4, 1 Peter 1:20, 2:24-25). 1 John 4:10 states " In this is love, not that we have loved God but that he LOVED US and SENT HIS SON [into the world] to be the propitiation for OUR [sheep] sins. FURTHERMORE, 1 John 3:16 states "By this we know love, that He [Christ] laid down His life FOR US [sheep], and we ought to lay down our lives for the brothers".

The conclusion regarding these passages of Scripture and the surrounding CONTEXT of 1 John 2:2 is:

(1) The "whole world" is best interpreted "Jew and Gentile" - John 11:45-52.
(2) The "whole world" regarding this letter is in reference to believers; all those who have believed but also all those who will believe - 5 John 1:1, 1 John 2:25, 5:11
(3) All those who will believe are explicitly Christ Sheep - 1 John 2:25, 5:11, John 10:26
(4) Christ is the Propitiation for all those who were Promised Eternal Life ONLY - 1 John 2:25, 5:11, 1 John 4:10, John 10:27-28
(5) God sent His Son into the world to SPECIFICALLY save His Sheep - 1 John 4:10
(6) Christ laid down His life SPECIFICALLY for His OWN Sheep - 1 John 3:16
(7) ONLY Christ sheep WILL believe EXCLUDING all others - 1 John 3:10, John 8:43-47, John 10:26

I used several passages of Scripture in 1 John as supporting examples among many to show that the Atonement of Christ is EXPLICITLY said to be for ONLY God's Elect/Sheep. In doing so, I maintain that Christ DID NOT enter the world to make Salvation MERELY POSSIBLE for all men WITHOUT EXCEPTION but rather Christ came to redeem a PARTICULAR PEOPLE to HIMSELF. This is the biblical testimony of Scripture.

By Aaron Fisher

The GRACE of God has appeared to ALL men (Titus 2:11)?

God Offers Salvation To All People (Titus 2:11)?

Who is the "all people" Paul is referencing to in Titus 2:11? Well, those whom he has already identified in the previous verses; the different people groups that has claimed Jesus Christ as their God and Savior (vs 10).

Older Men (vs 2)
Older Women (vs 3)
Young Women/Wives (vs 4 &5)
Bondservants (vs 9)
Our Savior (vs 10)
Bringing Salvation to all believers (vs 11)
Training Us (vs 12)

Titus teaching is to train these believers (vs 1 and 12) to renounce ungodliness. This verse is NOT teaching that the Grace of God has appeared to all men without exception but to those who are already saved or being saved - and in particular, the Elect of God who had already been promised eternal life before time or creation (1 timothy 1:1-2); therefore, the Grace of God will only appear ultimately to God's Elect, not everyone without exception because everyone without exception has not been promised eternal life.

The "all" (vs11) is the "us" (vs12) and the "us" are believers (vs13-14). However, these believers, Paul has classified into categories.

Older Men (vs 2)
Older Women (vs 3)
Young Women/Wives (vs 4 &5)
Bondservants (vs 9)

So, the 'grace' that has appeared to "all men" that brings salvation is a grace regarding Titus teaching to which he was entrusted by the Apostle Paul (vs1) enabling those different categories of believers being trained to renounce ungodliness .... within their specific role as a Christian whether it be older men, older women, bondservants, ect ......

The same grace that has appeared to "all" that brings salvation; is the same grace that is training the "all" - and just who is it that this grace is "training" that has brought salvation to? Older men, Older women, Younger woman, Bondservants, ect ......

In context, this is the "all men" that the Grace of God has appeared to. The same grace that has appeared, is the same grace that trains; but only toward a classified group of believers who are ultimately the Elect.

In addition, the "grace of God that brings salvation to all people" is not in reference to initial salvation as to be born again for those whom Paul was addressing were already saved but the salvation that's being addressed in verse 11 is in reference to the "the appearing of the glory of our great God and Savior Jesus Christ". This salvation is considered to be related to the believers glorification at Christ appearing.

ÇONTEXT ALWAYS MATTERS!

By Aaron Fisher

Christ, a failure if He died on behalf of everyone without exception? (Jesus death and role as High Priest are necessarily connected).

If Christ died for "everyone without exception" - It would indeed make Him a failure because his intercession as High Priest before and after His death (john 17:1-2, 10-11, romans 8:33-34, hebrews 2:16-18) as it relates to salvation would indeed be found unsuccessful if His death was intended to benefit everyone without exception seeing that everyone will not be saved. But according to Scripture, this is not the case. Christ intercessory work on behalf of His sheep before their salvation (john 17:20-24) and after salvation (romans 8:33-34, hebrews 2:16-18) is an effectual intercessory work on behalf of those given to Him from the Father; not everyone without exception. Everyone that Christ intercedes for will inevitably come to saving faith. Jesus could NEVER lose any of all those He intercedes for; it is an IMPOSSIBILITY (John 6:39). Jesus came down from Heaven to do the will of the Father and He accomplished this task that was given to Him on behalf of the Father's Elect and His very own sheep (john 6:38-39, 17:4, and 19:30). If Jesus died for everyone, that would imply His intercession as High Priest fails for whom it was intended (if all without exception); this is also an impossibility. Jesus does not intercede for those who were not given to Him! 

However, Christ is a High Priest ONLY toward the Children of Abraham (hebrews 2:16-17, john 8:37-47). The Children of Abraham are the Children of Promise and the Children of Promise are God's Elect and God's Elect are the Son's Sheep. Christ prayed BEFORE HIS DEATH on behalf of those given to Him from the Father (john 17:1-2, 10-11) so that AFTER HIS DEATH, those things He prayed for BEFORE HIS DEATH may indeed come to pass seeing that He accomplished all that the Father had given Him to do in regard to the work of redemption on their behalf - IT IS FINISHED.

Seeing that Christ intercessory work as High Priest is an effectual work, it is an impossibility for Him not to fulfill His Father's commission. Christ always does and fulfills the will of the Father. Indeed, the Son will lose none of all that was given to Him but raise them up on the last day. A KEY POINT - Jesus death and role as High Priest are necessarily related and cannot be seperated; He only intercedes for those He died for; therefore, resulting in the inevitable salvation of those who were given to Him - seeing that the Father will always honor the prayers of the Son for the Father ALWAYS hears the Son and the Son ALWAYS does what pleases the Father (john 8:29, john 11:42).

By Aaron Fisher