NO ONE has the "ability" to "libertarianly" come to the Father based upon "free will".

Jesus answered, “I am the way and the truth and the life. No one comes to the Father except through Me ~ John 14:6

The mere fact that no one can come to Son unless they have been given to Him by the Father (john 6:39) coupled with the fact that no one can come to the Father except through the Son (john 14:6) implies an "inability" on the one "coming" to either the Father or the Son; seeing that the one coming "cannot" come to either (john 14:1) apart from those belonging to the Father having been given to the Son beforehand as in prior to faith in both the Father or the Son from before the foundation of the world (ephesians 1:4).

In other words, seeing that no one can come to the Father without having been beforehand been given to the Son or prior to faith in the Son implies that those given to the Son were given to Him likewise prior to faith in the Father or else how could the Son say - "no one can come to the Father except through me?" This biblical truth eliminates the idea of "free will". No one can come to the Father, let alone the Son based upon libertarian free will. 

If there lies an inability as to come to the Son, in so far as prior to faith in the Son, one must be given to the Son; then there also lies an inability as to come to the Father seeing that the very same one's who belong to the Son prior to faith in the Son likewise belong to Father prior to faith in the Father (john 17:10).

The reason why the Son can say "no one can come to the Father except through me" is because those who come to the Son "belong" to the Son prior to demonstrating faith in the Son in the very same manner that those who come to the Father; likewise "belong" to the Father prior to demonstrating faith in the Father. They are the same group of particular people. 

In fact, the scriptures teach that those who belong to the Father have belonged to Him before the foundation of the world. This is why ephesians 1:4 speaks of those foreordained unto salvation as being "chose" by God before creation unto holiness and blameworthiness. Those who eventually come to the Father as to believe upon the Son were already the Father's since before creation. Likewise, those who belonged to the Father also belonged to the Son before creation as well. The Father chose His elect "in" the Son as belonging to the Son before creation unto holiness and blameworthiness. 

Those who come to the Father as to believe in Him will have done so because God will have solely and unilaterally circumcised their heart; taking out the heart of stone and replacing it with a heart of flesh in order for the sinner to respond and comply to God's command as to repent and believe. However, the only individual whom God will circumcise the heart of is a chosen remnant according to His grace; those who have been elected prior to birth of having done neither good or evil as of yet NOR according to the will of the individual as to rob God of the glory that's due Him alone in the salvation of sinful man.

In short, no one can libertarianly freely come to the Father apart from having been given to the Son before the foundation of the world. In order to believe in the Father, one must have already been given to the Son prior to belief in the Father; this is why Jesus can say - "no one can come to the Father except through me".

By Aaron Fisher 

Could Judas have done otherwise, than to betray Christ? (LUKE 24:44, LUKE 18:31)

Concerning Judas, not only does God's Word say that the Scriptures WOULD BE FULFILLED, but that the Scriptures also HAD TO BE FULFILLED, and according to Christ Himself; the Scriptures WILL BE FULFILLED!

Judas actions, were BOUND by Scripture (God's Decree, Eternal Word) not by his "free will" - he could have NOT DONE otherwise NOR did God MERELY foreknew what Judas would do BUT all of Judas actions were by the decree and plan of God. Besides the fact, Scripture CANNOT be broken (john 10:35).

The DECREE of God - Is not so much as a command but rather a previous determination of God before the Creation of the world of what would come to pass as of certainty resulting from his divine council and will relating to His eternal purposes that will glorify Himself in all things.

Predetermined purposes are based upon a predetermined plan. Both, the eternal purposes and plan of God are on both sides of the same coin; they cannot be separated. Both are DELIBERATE commitments of God in reaching the same end goal. Furthermore, they both come to pass, not only by the desire/intentions of God's heart but more importantly by the will/determination of God which reverts back to what He has BEFOREHAND eternally PURPOSED TO FULFILL; all that He has pre-planned - deriving from His perfect council.

LET US CONSIDER SOME SCRIPTURE VERSES:

While I was with them, I kept them in your name, which you have given me. I have guarded them, and not one of them has been lost EXCEPT THE SON OF DESTRUCTION [Judas], that the SCRIPTURE WOULD BE FULFILLED. - John 17:12

“Brothers, the SCRIPTURE HAD TO BE FULFILLED, which the Holy Spirit spoke beforehand by the mouth of David CONCERNING JUDAS, who became a guide to those who arrested Jesus. For he was numbered among us and was allotted his share in this ministry.” (Now this man acquired a field with the reward of his wickedness, and falling headlong he burst open in the middle and all his bowels gushed out. And it became known to all the inhabitants of Jerusalem, so that the field was called in their own language Akeldama, that is, Field of Blood.) “For it is written in the Book of Psalms, “‘May his camp become desolate, and let there be no one to dwell in it’; and “‘Let another take his office. - Acts 1:16-25

I am not speaking of all of you; I know whom I have chosen. BUT THE SCRIPTURES WILL BE FULFILLED, ‘He who ate my bread has lifted his heel against me.’ I AM TELLING YOU NOW, BEFORE IT TAKES PLACE, THAT WHEN IT DOES TAKE PLACE YOU MAY BELIEVE THAT I AM. Truly, truly, I say to you, whoever receives the one I send receives me, and whoever receives me receives the one who sent me.” After saying these things, Jesus was troubled in his spirit, and testified, “Truly, truly, I say to you, ONE OF YOU WILL BETRAY ME.” The disciples looked at one another, uncertain of whom he spoke. - John 13:18-26

So, I ask again - what say you? Could Judas have done otherwise, as to betray Christ? Could Judas have done otherwise based on his "free will?"

If you say yes, then how do you reconcile what Scripture has plainly stated concerning Judas' predetermined fate?

(1) that Scripture HAD TO BE FULFILLED concerning Judas - Acts 1:16-25

(2) that Scripture WILL BE FULFILLED concerning Judas - John 13:18-26 (be careful not to make Christ out to be a liar, a false prophet and a god other than Yahweh)

And if you say no:

(1) then you are acknowledging along with me that Judas actions were inevitable and certain to come to pass according to what Scripture has declared concerning him

(2) and also that his actions was not based upon his "free will" or MERELY God's foreknowledge (for God 'foreknew' that Judas could have not done otherwise as to fulfill scripture) BUT RATHER upon the Decree of God - seeing that what God has decreed would come to pass in spite of Judas's 'will' having been free or not..

Question for those who insist Judas was "free" to do otherwise:

So if God foreknew according to Judas 'free will' that it was possibly for him to do otherwise - could Judas as an actual fact still do otherwise than what Scripture has already declared concerning him by way of prophecy? If yes, then how is that possible without contradicting the scriptures? Chapter and Verse please.

Nonetheless, the eternal purposes of God are NOT dependant on any future so called free will choices of man; on the contrary; just the opposite, man's will is SOLELY dependant upon the Decree of God which consist of His purposes and plan to which no man can or will thwart!

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Many plans (according to his desire/will) are in a man's heart, But the purpose of the LORD will [ALWAYS] prevail. - Proverbs 19:21

The LORD nullifies the counsel of the nations; He frustrates the plans of the peoples (according to their desire/will). The counsel of the LORD [ALWAYS] stands forever, The plans of His heart from generation to generation. - Psalm 33:10-11

By Aaron Fisher

Responding to Jordan Hatfield, Phil Bair and Tyler Flower (2 Thessalonians 2:9-12) Free Will VS God's Decree!

The coming of the lawless one is by the activity of Satan with all power and false signs and wonders, and with all wicked deception for those who are perishing, because they refused to love the truth and so be saved. Therefore God sends them a strong delusion, so that they may believe what is false, in order that all may be condemned who did not believe the truth but had pleasure in unrighteousness. - 2 Thessalonians 2:9-12

But we ought always to give thanks to God for you, brothers beloved by the Lord, because God chose you from the beginning to be saved, through sanctification by the Spirit and belief in the truth. To this he called you through our gospel, so that you may obtain the glory of our Lord Jesus Christ. - 2 Thessalonians 2:13-14

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Jordan and his two guest (Phil Bair and Tyler Fowler) want to deny that it will be God himself in the latter days that is ultimately responsible for deceiving those who are perishing because they refuse to love the truth as to be saved. Although, I agree it will be the "man of lawlessness" actually doing the deceiving having been empowered by Satan - however, Satan could not empower anyone; let alone the "man of lawlessness" to deceive apart from the will of God. Therefore, the act of deceiving those by the "man of lawlessness" who take pleasure in wickedness is ultimately according to God's will; apart from which, neither Satan nor the "man of lawlessness" could act - not to mention the "day of the Lord" mentioned in Thessalonians and the coming "man of lawlessness" will also be according to God's plan foretold of old (isaiah 13:9-11 and daniel 11:36-39).

Jordan and guest would have us believe that neither the 'deception' by the Anti-Christ nor the 'strong delusion' sent by God was according to God's deliberate plan or done so by "fiat". However, scripture informs us otherwise - for they failed to mention that those who DID NOT take pleasure in wickedness NOR failed to love the truth as to be saved were either deceived or deluded as were the others. Why? Because they were BELOVED by the Lord as the text plainly states! What does it mean to be be "beloved" by the Lord or called the Lord's beloved? It means that this particular group of individuals have been ultimately eternally loved by the Lord or eternally favorably loved by the Lord unto salvation. This particular group of individuals salvation is inevitable; they have been foreordained to believe from before creation as God's elect - for it was "in love" that the Father predestined them before the foundation of the world as sons unto Himself (speaking of the body of Christ or the Church of God as a whole, ephesians 1:5 and 5:1). When God predestined them before creation; they were already considered His "beloved" children. This is why the Apostle Paul could say - "God chose you from the beginning to be saved, through sanctification by the Spirit AND belief in the truth". IT WAS BECAUSE, as Paul continues to say - "to this, God called you!" Meaning, God had called those who were beloved by Him before creation to salvation through satisfaction by the Spirit AND belief in the truth - so that you may obtain the glory of our Lord Jesus Christ (2 thessalonians 2:13-14). Notice, that God had both chose beforehand and called this particular group of sinners to salvation to the exclusion of those who continued to have pleasure in wickedness and refuse to love the truth. Scripture refers to these particular groups of sinners - those that are perishing; in contrast to those who are eternally loved by God unto salvation. Even though Jordan and guest would like to deny a decree; nonetheless a decree exist. God determined to save a particular people unto Himself while passing over the rest for salvation leaving them to fall prey to the demonic activities of Satan through the coming "lawlessness man". Just as God's elect was foreordained to believe to be rescued from the power of Satan, then likewise; those who eventually fall prey to Satan devices were also foreordained to remain in unbelief and perish. Jordan and company do look at other verses to justify their interpretation; however, they fail to keep the scriptures in their proper context.

They very much want to contribute the "free will" of man to those who "refuse to love the truth as to be saved". However, proper exegesis and hermeneutics is simply not on their side. The prophecy of the coming "lawlessness man" was foretold long ago BUT the "decree" was set in motion before creation regarding just who will ultimately be saved and who will not.

By Aaron Fisher