Thursday, March 7, 2024
Drawn by Jesus? A Response to Leighton Flowers and upcoming Debate with James White.
Saturday, February 17, 2024
A child's state of so called "innocence" is NOT a criteria nor factor regarding their possible salvation - only the mercy of God!
There is a popular teaching among Christian circles that a newborn or young child who unfortunately happens to die prematurely is somehow entitled to inherit salvation due to the so called "innocence" of the child not having enough acquired knowledge as to not only discern good from evil but also enough acquired knowledge as to reject evil and choose the good. However, first and foremost, such an assertion would presume that every infant or young child has been favorably blessed by God as to partake and benefit of the New Covenant and the spiritual blessings which derive from it; which gives life to the spiritually dead as Christ sheep (hebrews 13:20, 2 corinthians 3:6). Secondly, another major delimmna; is that God has predetermined as in chosen prior to one's birth all of everyone who has been foreordained to inherit salvation and that ones salvation is not dependent upon any criteria on the individual's part; apart from whom God has predetermined to show mercy to beforehand (romans 9:11). So, in order for any individual to argue that an infant or young child is "entitled" to inherit salvation due to their so called state of "innocence" - one must likewise 'successfully' demonstrate this assertion biblically from scripture that such an entitlement of salvation is "indeed" a "factor" regarding God's decision or determination to have mercy upon a child who dies prematurely and likewise chooses them prior to their birth for glory in order for such an assertion to be scripturally accurate.
Friday, February 9, 2024
Provisionalism, Pelagianism AND the Biblical Truth!
Friday, February 2, 2024
Children of Wrath by Nature (ephesians 2:3)?
Wednesday, January 31, 2024
Could Judas have done otherwise, than to betray Christ? (LUKE 24:44, LUKE 18:31)
Concerning Judas, not only does God's Word say that the Scriptures WOULD BE FULFILLED, but that the Scriptures also HAD TO BE FULFILLED, and according to Christ Himself; the Scriptures WILL BE FULFILLED!
Judas actions, were BOUND by Scripture (God's Decree, Eternal Word) not by his "free will" - he could have NOT DONE otherwise NOR did God MERELY foreknew what Judas would do BUT all of Judas actions were by the decree and plan of God. Besides the fact, Scripture CANNOT be broken (john 10:35).
The DECREE of God - Is not so much as a command but rather a previous determination of God before the Creation of the world of what would come to pass as of certainty resulting from his divine council and will relating to His eternal purposes that will glorify Himself in all things.
Predetermined purposes are based upon a predetermined plan. Both, the eternal purposes and plan of God are on both sides of the same coin; they cannot be separated. Both are DELIBERATE commitments of God in reaching the same end goal. Furthermore, they both come to pass, not only by the desire/intentions of God's heart but more importantly by the will/determination of God which reverts back to what He has BEFOREHAND eternally PURPOSED TO FULFILL; all that He has pre-planned - deriving from His perfect council.
LET US CONSIDER SOME SCRIPTURE VERSES:
While I was with them, I kept them in your name, which you have given me. I have guarded them, and not one of them has been lost EXCEPT THE SON OF DESTRUCTION [Judas], that the SCRIPTURE WOULD BE FULFILLED. - John 17:12
“Brothers, the SCRIPTURE HAD TO BE FULFILLED, which the Holy Spirit spoke beforehand by the mouth of David CONCERNING JUDAS, who became a guide to those who arrested Jesus. For he was numbered among us and was allotted his share in this ministry.” (Now this man acquired a field with the reward of his wickedness, and falling headlong he burst open in the middle and all his bowels gushed out. And it became known to all the inhabitants of Jerusalem, so that the field was called in their own language Akeldama, that is, Field of Blood.) “For it is written in the Book of Psalms, “‘May his camp become desolate, and let there be no one to dwell in it’; and “‘Let another take his office. - Acts 1:16-25
I am not speaking of all of you; I know whom I have chosen. BUT THE SCRIPTURES WILL BE FULFILLED, ‘He who ate my bread has lifted his heel against me.’ I AM TELLING YOU NOW, BEFORE IT TAKES PLACE, THAT WHEN IT DOES TAKE PLACE YOU MAY BELIEVE THAT I AM. Truly, truly, I say to you, whoever receives the one I send receives me, and whoever receives me receives the one who sent me.” After saying these things, Jesus was troubled in his spirit, and testified, “Truly, truly, I say to you, ONE OF YOU WILL BETRAY ME.” The disciples looked at one another, uncertain of whom he spoke. - John 13:18-26
So, I ask again - what say you? Could Judas have done otherwise, as to betray Christ? Could Judas have done otherwise based on his "free will?"
If you say yes, then how do you reconcile what Scripture has plainly stated concerning Judas' predetermined fate?
(1) that Scripture HAD TO BE FULFILLED concerning Judas - Acts 1:16-25
(2) that Scripture WILL BE FULFILLED concerning Judas - John 13:18-26 (be careful not to make Christ out to be a liar, a false prophet and a god other than Yahweh)
And if you say no:
(1) then you are acknowledging along with me that Judas actions were inevitable and certain to come to pass according to what Scripture has declared concerning him
(2) and also that his actions was not based upon his "free will" or MERELY God's foreknowledge (for God 'foreknew' that Judas could have not done otherwise as to fulfill scripture) BUT RATHER upon the Decree of God - seeing that what God has decreed would come to pass in spite of Judas's 'will' having been free or not..
Question for those who insist Judas was "free" to do otherwise:
So if God foreknew according to Judas 'free will' that it was possibly for him to do otherwise - could Judas as an actual fact still do otherwise than what Scripture has already declared concerning him by way of prophecy? If yes, then how is that possible without contradicting the scriptures? Chapter and Verse please.
Nonetheless, the eternal purposes of God are NOT dependant on any future so called free will choices of man; on the contrary; just the opposite, man's will is SOLELY dependant upon the Decree of God which consist of His purposes and plan to which no man can or will thwart!
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Many plans (according to his desire/will) are in a man's heart, But the purpose of the LORD will [ALWAYS] prevail. - Proverbs 19:21
The LORD nullifies the counsel of the nations; He frustrates the plans of the peoples (according to their desire/will). The counsel of the LORD [ALWAYS] stands forever, The plans of His heart from generation to generation. - Psalm 33:10-11
By Aaron Fisher
Wednesday, January 24, 2024
Babies born sinful according to scripture? What does God's Word actually teach?
Wednesday, December 6, 2023
The Good or Bad Tree AND the Fruit it Only Can Produce; Spoken of by Christ.
Tuesday, December 5, 2023
The Objector of Romans 3 AND Romans 9 (both consider God as unjust regarding the salvation of man according to His own sovereign will and choice)
Friday, December 1, 2023
Responding to Jordan Hatfield, Phil Bair and Tyler Flower (2 Thessalonians 2:9-12) Free Will VS God's Decree!
Sunday, November 26, 2023
Denying the Master that "bought" them (2 Peter 2:1)?
Wednesday, November 22, 2023
The Gift of Faith?
Thursday, October 12, 2023
Does "foreknowledge" necessitate Determinism?
Thursday, September 28, 2023
UNION WITH CHRIST.
Monday, September 25, 2023
Blessed "in Christ" before creation with every "spiritual blessing" (ephes 1:3-5).
Thursday, September 14, 2023
The DECREE OF GOD.
Autonomous Creatures?
Wednesday, September 13, 2023
God is UNABLE for it is IMPOSSIBLE for Him to create Libertarian Free Creatures!
So that the "world" may believe and know that you have sent me ~ Jesus Christ (John 17:21 and John 17:23)
It seems as though many Christians misunderstand when John says - "so that the world may believe and know that you sent me" regarding JOHN 17:21 and 17:23. They assume that the "world" spoken of is "all inclusive" - as in, including everyone without exception. However, a closer look will disprove such an interpretation. All one has to do is look at the context. Early on, when Jesus says "He's not praying for the world" - He was exclusively praying for the Apostles APART FROM those who will believe through their word (some several verses later). So when Jesus states that - "I do not ask for these (Apostles) only, but also for those will believe in me through their word" - He has NOW included the "WORLD" of all those given to Him; going beyond just the Apostles regarding His prayer (john 17:20). A very crucial and necessary point - So when Jesus states, "so that the world may believe" - He is referencing those who will believe (I do not ask for these only) regarding His prayer which goes beyond just the Apostles. In other words; the very ones Jesus additionally prays for (john 17:20) are of the "world" that has believed that the Father sent the Son. When Jesus mentions the "world" - he is NOT referring to an additional group of people other than for whom Jesus has prayed (john 17:20). NO. The "world" that has believed that the Father sent the Son (vs 21) are the very ones Jesus additionally prayed for (vs 20) having gone beyond just praying for the Apostles early on.
Likewise when Jesus says - "I in them and you in me, that they may become perfectly one, so that the 'world' may know that you sent me and loved them even as you love me" - He is referring to the very same ones He additionally has prayed for (john 17:20) having gone beyond just praying for the Apostles; those given to Him BUT have simply now included the "world" of all those given to Him as well. Mind you, when Jesus prayed soley for the Apostles; He prayed that they may "be one" even as the Son and the Father are one too (17:11). However, now, His prayer has gone beyond the Apostles and into the "world". The same ones Jesus has additionally prayed for (john 17:20) are the very same ones He now prays for that they too may become "perfectly one" along with the Apostles (john 17:23). So that - the "world" (of whom Jesus additionally prayed for, vs 20) may know that you sent me and loved them even as you loved me. The "world" of those who will believe and know that the Father sent the Son is the "world" of those that has been given to Him and that Jesus additionally has prayed for (vs 20), - again, having gone beyond "just" praying for the Apostles. The "world" in question who may believe and know that the Father sent the Son is in reference to those Jesus additionally has prayed for (I do not ask for these only) NOT some additional group of people of the "world" who were NEVER given to the Son nor EVER had the promise of Eternal Life; such an argument is read into the text. Many Christians want to make the "world" spoken of in 17:21 and 17:23 as relating to a group of people other than those given to the Son having the Promise of Eternal Life. However, when Jesus states - "so that the world may believe and know that you sent me; it is always in reference to those given to the Son and have the Promise of Eternal Life. No one outside or beyond this group of people have the possibility of ever obtaining Eternal Life. You must be given to the Son in order to obtain eternal life (john 17:2). Everyone is not given; therefore everyone will not obtain life.
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(1) I am praying for them (the Apostles only). I am not praying for the world (excluding everyone else) but for those whom you have given me for they are yours - VERSE 9
(2) I do not ask for these (the Apostles) only but also for those (of the world) who will believe in me through their (the Apostles) word, that they (those of the world who Christ additionally prays for going beyond just the Apostles, vs 20) may all be one just as you Father are in me and I in you, that they (those of the world who Christ additionally prays for going beyond just the Apostles, vs 20) also may be in us so that the world (not just the Apostles of whom Christ initially prayed for but those of the world whom Christ additionally prayed for, 20) may believe that you sent me - VERSE 20-21
(3) I in them and you in me, that they (those of the world who Christ additionally prays for going beyond just the Apostles, vs 20) may become perfectly one, so that the world (not just the Apostles of whom Christ initially prayed for but those of the world whom Christ additionally prayed for, 20) may know that you sent me and loved them (those of the world who Christ additionally prays for going beyond just the Apostles, vs 20) even as you loved me. Father, I desire that they (not just the Apostles of whom Christ initially prayed for but those of the world whom Christ additionally prayed for, 20) also whom you haven given me (those Christ additionally prayed for, vs 20) may be with me where i am to see my glory that you have given me because you loved me before the foundation of the world - VERSE 23-24
CONCLUSION:
Those of whom Christ additionally prays for (vs 20) are the "world" OR of the "world" that Christ speaks of - "so that the 'world' may believe you sent me. The very ones Christ additionally prays for (vs 20) are the same ones who will believe "of the world" that the Father sent the Son (vs 21,23, and 25); not some additional group of people not spoken of in the text other than those given to the Son (vs 2, 9, 10, 12, and 24).
By Aaron Fisher


