Concerning Judas, not only does God's Word say that the Scriptures WOULD BE FULFILLED, but that the Scriptures also HAD TO BE FULFILLED, and according to Christ Himself; the Scriptures WILL BE FULFILLED!
Judas actions, were BOUND by Scripture (God's Decree, Eternal Word) not by his "free will" - he could have NOT DONE otherwise NOR did God MERELY foreknew what Judas would do BUT all of Judas actions were by the decree and plan of God. Besides the fact, Scripture CANNOT be broken (john 10:35).
The DECREE of God - Is not so much as a command but rather a previous determination of God before the Creation of the world of what would come to pass as of certainty resulting from his divine council and will relating to His eternal purposes that will glorify Himself in all things.
Predetermined purposes are based upon a predetermined plan. Both, the eternal purposes and plan of God are on both sides of the same coin; they cannot be separated. Both are DELIBERATE commitments of God in reaching the same end goal. Furthermore, they both come to pass, not only by the desire/intentions of God's heart but more importantly by the will/determination of God which reverts back to what He has BEFOREHAND eternally PURPOSED TO FULFILL; all that He has pre-planned - deriving from His perfect council.
LET US CONSIDER SOME SCRIPTURE VERSES:
While I was with them, I kept them in your name, which you have given me. I have guarded them, and not one of them has been lost EXCEPT THE SON OF DESTRUCTION [Judas], that the SCRIPTURE WOULD BE FULFILLED. - John 17:12
“Brothers, the SCRIPTURE HAD TO BE FULFILLED, which the Holy Spirit spoke beforehand by the mouth of David CONCERNING JUDAS, who became a guide to those who arrested Jesus. For he was numbered among us and was allotted his share in this ministry.” (Now this man acquired a field with the reward of his wickedness, and falling headlong he burst open in the middle and all his bowels gushed out. And it became known to all the inhabitants of Jerusalem, so that the field was called in their own language Akeldama, that is, Field of Blood.) “For it is written in the Book of Psalms, “‘May his camp become desolate, and let there be no one to dwell in it’; and “‘Let another take his office. - Acts 1:16-25
I am not speaking of all of you; I know whom I have chosen. BUT THE SCRIPTURES WILL BE FULFILLED, ‘He who ate my bread has lifted his heel against me.’ I AM TELLING YOU NOW, BEFORE IT TAKES PLACE, THAT WHEN IT DOES TAKE PLACE YOU MAY BELIEVE THAT I AM. Truly, truly, I say to you, whoever receives the one I send receives me, and whoever receives me receives the one who sent me.” After saying these things, Jesus was troubled in his spirit, and testified, “Truly, truly, I say to you, ONE OF YOU WILL BETRAY ME.” The disciples looked at one another, uncertain of whom he spoke. - John 13:18-26
So, I ask again - what say you? Could Judas have done otherwise, as to betray Christ? Could Judas have done otherwise based on his "free will?"
If you say yes, then how do you reconcile what Scripture has plainly stated concerning Judas' predetermined fate?
(1) that Scripture HAD TO BE FULFILLED concerning Judas - Acts 1:16-25
(2) that Scripture WILL BE FULFILLED concerning Judas - John 13:18-26 (be careful not to make Christ out to be a liar, a false prophet and a god other than Yahweh)
And if you say no:
(1) then you are acknowledging along with me that Judas actions were inevitable and certain to come to pass according to what Scripture has declared concerning him
(2) and also that his actions was not based upon his "free will" or MERELY God's foreknowledge (for God 'foreknew' that Judas could have not done otherwise as to fulfill scripture) BUT RATHER upon the Decree of God - seeing that what God has decreed would come to pass in spite of Judas's 'will' having been free or not..
Question for those who insist Judas was "free" to do otherwise:
So if God foreknew according to Judas 'free will' that it was possibly for him to do otherwise - could Judas as an actual fact still do otherwise than what Scripture has already declared concerning him by way of prophecy? If yes, then how is that possible without contradicting the scriptures? Chapter and Verse please.
Nonetheless, the eternal purposes of God are NOT dependant on any future so called free will choices of man; on the contrary; just the opposite, man's will is SOLELY dependant upon the Decree of God which consist of His purposes and plan to which no man can or will thwart!
---------------------------------
Many plans (according to his desire/will) are in a man's heart, But the purpose of the LORD will [ALWAYS] prevail. - Proverbs 19:21
The LORD nullifies the counsel of the nations; He frustrates the plans of the peoples (according to their desire/will). The counsel of the LORD [ALWAYS] stands forever, The plans of His heart from generation to generation. - Psalm 33:10-11
By Aaron Fisher
No comments:
Post a Comment