NO ONE has the "ability" to "libertarianly" come to the Father based upon "free will".

Jesus answered, “I am the way and the truth and the life. No one comes to the Father except through Me ~ John 14:6

The mere fact that no one can come to Son unless they have been given to Him by the Father (john 6:39) coupled with the fact that no one can come to the Father except through the Son (john 14:6) implies an "inability" on the one "coming" to either the Father or the Son; seeing that the one coming "cannot" come to either (john 14:1) apart from those belonging to the Father having been given to the Son beforehand as in prior to faith in both the Father or the Son from before the foundation of the world (ephesians 1:4).

In other words, seeing that no one can come to the Father without having been beforehand been given to the Son or prior to faith in the Son implies that those given to the Son were given to Him likewise prior to faith in the Father or else how could the Son say - "no one can come to the Father except through me?" This biblical truth eliminates the idea of "free will". No one can come to the Father, let alone the Son based upon libertarian free will. 

If there lies an inability as to come to the Son, in so far as prior to faith in the Son, one must be given to the Son; then there also lies an inability as to come to the Father seeing that the very same one's who belong to the Son prior to faith in the Son likewise belong to Father prior to faith in the Father (john 17:10).

The reason why the Son can say "no one can come to the Father except through me" is because those who come to the Son "belong" to the Son prior to demonstrating faith in the Son in the very same manner that those who come to the Father; likewise "belong" to the Father prior to demonstrating faith in the Father. They are the same group of particular people. 

In fact, the scriptures teach that those who belong to the Father have belonged to Him before the foundation of the world. This is why ephesians 1:4 speaks of those foreordained unto salvation as being "chose" by God before creation unto holiness and blameworthiness. Those who eventually come to the Father as to believe upon the Son were already the Father's since before creation. Likewise, those who belonged to the Father also belonged to the Son before creation as well. The Father chose His elect "in" the Son as belonging to the Son before creation unto holiness and blameworthiness. 

Those who come to the Father as to believe in Him will have done so because God will have solely and unilaterally circumcised their heart; taking out the heart of stone and replacing it with a heart of flesh in order for the sinner to respond and comply to God's command as to repent and believe. However, the only individual whom God will circumcise the heart of is a chosen remnant according to His grace; those who have been elected prior to birth of having done neither good or evil as of yet NOR according to the will of the individual as to rob God of the glory that's due Him alone in the salvation of sinful man.

In short, no one can libertarianly freely come to the Father apart from having been given to the Son before the foundation of the world. In order to believe in the Father, one must have already been given to the Son prior to belief in the Father; this is why Jesus can say - "no one can come to the Father except through me".

By Aaron Fisher 

Drawn by Jesus? A Response to Leighton Flowers and upcoming Debate with James White.

A list of 7 simple questions asked and answered regarding John 6:44 ~ 

(1) Who are those "drawn" by the Father as to come to the Son?

The Children of Promise aka God's Elect; a remnant unmeritely chosen by God's grace unto faith, righteousness and salvation (genesis 17:7, romans 9:8,11, and romans 11:5-7). 

(2) Why "initially" are the Children of Promise aka God's Elect "drawn" by Father as to come to the Son? Because they have always belonged to the Father and appointed beforehand OR prior to faith as already "heirs" according to Abraham Covenant (john 8:35-47, luke 19:10, galatians 4:30, romans 4:16, 22-25, romans 9:6-11)

(3) When "exactly" OR for "how long" have the Children of Promise OR God's Elect belonged to the Father?

There was NEVER a "time" when they didn't; since they belonged to Him "before the foundation of the world" OR "before time" as we consider the concept of time as it relates to a chronological order of events (ephesians 1:11 and ephesians 1:14).

(4) When "exactly" OR for "how long" have the Children of Promise OR God's Elect belonged to the Son?

There was NEVER a "time" when they didn't; since they belonged to Him "before the foundation of the world" OR "before time" as we consider the concept of time as it relates to a chronological order of events. The Father gave His Elect to the Son as His very own sheep before creation. This is why Ephesians 1:4 asserts that the Father chose "us" in Christ before the foundation of the world as already belonging to Him; with the end goal in mind to be "holy and blameless". The "heirs of promise" have always belonged to both the Father and the Son. This is also why Jesus can claim - "what's yours is mine and what is mine is yours" (john 17:10).

(5) Were those (children of promise aka God's elect) chose before creation elected unto salvation? YES! The same one's predestined before the foundation of the world for adoption as sons are the very same one's who go on to hear the word of truth and positively respond the Gospel as to be saved (ephesians 1:5 and ephesians 1:13-14) according to the context.

(6) Are those elected before creation unto salvation the same ones "drawn" by the Father as to come to the Son and believe in Him? Absolutely! They are the very "heirs of promise" for whom the Son came down from Heaven as to do the will of the Father and lose none of all those whom before creation was given to Him (1 peter 1:18-25, 1 peter 2:6-10 and 1 peter 2:24-25).

(7) Are those "drawn" to the Son by the Father a particular people to the exclusion of the rest of mankind?

YES! The only ones drawn by the Father are the Children of Promise OR God's Elect who have already been appointed beforehand OR prior to faith for salvation. Those who have been passed over by God for salvation and will never or could ever be drawn by the Father (as in, an impossibility) to the Son are those for example the scripture speaks of as (a) the perishing (b) rest of mankind (c) those who Father is the Devil (d) and those who do not belong to Him as His sheep.

CONCLUSION: 

No one's "drawn" by the Father according to their "libertarian free will" as Leighton claims. The scriptures are clear! The only ones "drawn" are those whom the Father has eternally loved - His beloved; the Children of Promise, chosen before creation and decreed unto salvation. If Leighton would like to debate me; simply contact me - I'M READY.

By Aaron Fisher 

A child's state of so called "innocence" is NOT a criteria nor factor regarding their possible salvation - only the mercy of God!

                                                          

There is a popular teaching among Christian circles that a newborn or young child who unfortunately happens to die prematurely is somehow entitled to inherit salvation due to the so called "innocence" of the child not having enough acquired knowledge as to not only discern good from evil but also enough acquired knowledge as to reject evil and choose the good. However, first and foremost, such an assertion would presume that every infant or young child has been favorably blessed by God as to partake and benefit of the New Covenant and the spiritual blessings which derive from it; which gives life to the spiritually dead as Christ sheep (hebrews 13:20, 2 corinthians 3:6). Secondly, another major delimmna; is that God has predetermined as in chosen prior to one's birth all of everyone who has been foreordained to inherit salvation and that ones salvation is not dependent upon any criteria on the individual's part; apart from whom God has predetermined to show mercy to beforehand (romans 9:11). So, in order for any individual to argue that an infant or young child is "entitled" to inherit salvation due to their so called state of "innocence" - one must likewise 'successfully' demonstrate this assertion biblically from scripture that such an entitlement of salvation is "indeed" a "factor" regarding God's decision or determination to have mercy upon a child who dies prematurely and likewise chooses them prior to their birth for glory in order for such an assertion to be scripturally accurate. 

On the other hand, I believe the scriptures has clearly stated that God chose specific individuals prior to their birth as to not regard any specific good deed OR evil deed of which they had not done as of yet OR will do - involving His prerogative to save whom He wills (romans 9:11). Therefore, if God did not take into account any good deed; let alone any evil deed; then one's "innocence" is not a factor in His determination to save - seeing that such an assertion of a child's so called "innocence" would surely suggest that an infant or young child is not capable of doing anything good or bad "as of yet" as a factor. The true biblical doctrine of Election rules out such a criteria of "innocence" of entitlement for salvation because God has determined to have mercy upon His elect not taking into account prior to one's birth any evil that a infant or young child who prematurely dies after birth may or may not or even could have committed (romans 9:11). God's saves in spite of the sins committed of His elect; therefore neither a child or an adult sin's for that matter; is a factor in the salvation of His chosen ones. Therefore, the so called "innocence" of a child is entirely ruled out regarding the salvation of God's people because an infant or young child's state of "innocence" implies potential future guilt regarding acts of evil and God has neither elected His people on the basis of committed acts of evil or committed acts of good BUT only on the basis of His prerogative prior to one's birth to have mercy upon whom He wills!

By Aaron Fisher 

Provisionalism, Pelagianism AND the Biblical Truth!

[In love] God [predestined] us for [adoption to himself as sons] through Jesus Christ, according to the purpose of his will, [to the praise of his glorious grace], with which he has [blessed us in the Beloved] - Ephesians 2:5-6

Leighton Flowers outright dissociates himself from Pelagianism or even Semi Plaginism for that matter. However both Pelagianism and Semi-Pelagianism do acknowledge as not to reject God's "grace". Nonetheless, Pelagianism, Semi-Pelagianism AND Provisionalism do indeed reject God's grace. They reject God's "initial" or "primary" grace that preceded creation itself. This grace or unmerited favor of God was predetermined towards a particular people by decree unto faith. This particular grace was brought forth in love as to predestine a people before the foundation of the world unto adoption as sons aka believers in God. And if predestined to adoption as sons; then those predestined were by default foreordained to believe - to the exclusion of the "rest of mankind" of whom God did not predestine. Therefore, by the Provisionist own acknowledgement - they fit the religious category of Pelagianism or even Semi Plaginism for argument sake because they unequivocally deny God's grace; the very grace that preceded creation itself!

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Saving Grace is a Unique and Particular Grace that's not granted to all men but Only a select few; God's Elect (Ephesians 2:4-10). 

SAVING GRACE is a particular grace that's not granted to all men but only a chosen few whom God has predetermined to unmeritly favor in regards to their salvation. This grace is distinct from all other graces bestowed by God seeing that only a select group can benefit from this unique grace. We see this confirmation of such grace particularly in Ephesians Chapter 1 and 2. The saving grace the Apostle Paul speaks of (ephesians 2:4-10) is in conjunction with Gods choosing and predestining before the foundation of the world a particular people as adopted sons to be holy and blameless (ephesians 1:4-5). Therefore, this particular grace rules out the "rest of mankind" (eph.1:3) or "sons of disobedience" whom God has left to remain in their sins being still deserving of wrath (ephesians 5:5-12) from ever benefitting from such grace.

In order for the "rest of mankind" or the "sons of disobedience" that God has passed over as to remain in their sins to benefit from this unique and particular saving grace - then they too must have been chosen in Christ and predestined as well before the foundation of the world to partake of any and such spiritual blessing (ephesians 1:3). Furthermore, those of whom God neither chose or predestined before creation also would have to been among those for whom Jesus had died for (ephesians 5:1-2) in order for them to be redeemed by His blood and their sins forgiven (ephesians 1:7) of which they were not. To argue otherwise, would be to undermine the love of God for a specific people unto His own glory and to assert or demand that God must love everyone as in all without exception in the very same manner for He only "in love" predestined before the foundation of the world those whom He foreknew; a particular people for His own glory while passing over the rest. Furthermore, to also argue against God having chose and predestined a select people unto salvation would call into question His wisdom, counsel, and judgement as if they are somehow flawed or misguided and not considered perfect in and of themselves seeing that God is perfect in all His ways as Paul goes on to rightly proclaim (ephesians 1:8-10). The grace or favor of God is only extended towards a select few of whom He has both foreknew and foreloved.

By Aaron Fisher

Children of Wrath by Nature (ephesians 2:3)?

Regarding, EPHESIANS 2:3 - the "nature" to which Paul is referring to is with respect to the flesh of man from birth (john 3:6); it is of the "old man" as an unbeliever (colossians 3:9 and ephesians 4:22).

Everyone born, is born as an unbeliever according to sinful flesh. When Jesus said 'that which is BORN of flesh is flesh' - He was referring to sinful flesh (john 3:6). This is why Paul states that God sent His Son in the likeness of sinful flesh - in reference to the "sin nature" of all humanity (romans 8:3). 

Jesus came in the likeness of sinful flesh in order to condemn the power of sin upon the cross which permeates the flesh of man; as in total depravity, to which we are born under. You cannot separate one's nature from his flesh. Although, I agree, that "by nature" is in reference to "habitual sinful conduct" according to the specific Greek word that is used and it's context.

However, what many fail to realize is that this "habitual sinful conduct" is spoken of as the 'default' position of man who is born of sinful flesh; for man born of mere flesh can only obey sin and the sinful desires of the heart (romans 6:12-14) according to the 'nature' spoken of in Ephesians 2:3. The sinful flesh of man can ONLY bear fruit which leads to spiritual death (romans 7:5). Sinful man, from birth, is UNABLE to obey God in righteousness apart from the work of the Spirit that would enable him to do so (romans 7:4-6).

This is why we ALL come out of our mother's wound deserving God's wrath for we are deemed sinners from birth (romans 5:18-19) unable to do otherwise apart from imputed righteousness. There is no condemnation for those who are "in Christ" but for those who are not "in Christ" - eternal punishment justly awaits. We are not born "in Christ" but rather "in Adam" deserving God's wrath because we are born as "sons of disobedience" according to our nature (ephesians 2:1-3). We are ALL born as unbelievers from birth, as the 'old man' in Adam according to sinful flesh, deserving God's wrath - this is the testimony of scripture!

In other words, those deserving of God's wrath or children of God's wrath the Apostle Paul is referring to (ephesians 2:3) are those in an unbelieving state and if in an unbelieving state; then they are still "in Adam" as the "old man" and if they are considered to still be of the "old man" then they are likewise still of the flesh to which they were born that can only bear fruit unto death. Those who are merely of the flesh and have not been "born again" - CANNOT please God; including newborn infants and young children. God would be 'just' condemning ALL not found to be in Christ but still in Adam at judgement.

Nature (ephesians 2:3): Unbeliever = Old Man = In Adam = From Birth = Sinful flesh by default that can only bear fruit unto spiritual death = Deserving of God's Wrath 

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SEE ALSO - The TWO NATURE'S of MANKIND (the old and new man).

CLICK LINK: The TWO NATURE'S of MANKIND (the old and new man).

By Aaron Fisher 

Could Judas have done otherwise, than to betray Christ? (LUKE 24:44, LUKE 18:31)

Concerning Judas, not only does God's Word say that the Scriptures WOULD BE FULFILLED, but that the Scriptures also HAD TO BE FULFILLED, and according to Christ Himself; the Scriptures WILL BE FULFILLED!

Judas actions, were BOUND by Scripture (God's Decree, Eternal Word) not by his "free will" - he could have NOT DONE otherwise NOR did God MERELY foreknew what Judas would do BUT all of Judas actions were by the decree and plan of God. Besides the fact, Scripture CANNOT be broken (john 10:35).

The DECREE of God - Is not so much as a command but rather a previous determination of God before the Creation of the world of what would come to pass as of certainty resulting from his divine council and will relating to His eternal purposes that will glorify Himself in all things.

Predetermined purposes are based upon a predetermined plan. Both, the eternal purposes and plan of God are on both sides of the same coin; they cannot be separated. Both are DELIBERATE commitments of God in reaching the same end goal. Furthermore, they both come to pass, not only by the desire/intentions of God's heart but more importantly by the will/determination of God which reverts back to what He has BEFOREHAND eternally PURPOSED TO FULFILL; all that He has pre-planned - deriving from His perfect council.

LET US CONSIDER SOME SCRIPTURE VERSES:

While I was with them, I kept them in your name, which you have given me. I have guarded them, and not one of them has been lost EXCEPT THE SON OF DESTRUCTION [Judas], that the SCRIPTURE WOULD BE FULFILLED. - John 17:12

“Brothers, the SCRIPTURE HAD TO BE FULFILLED, which the Holy Spirit spoke beforehand by the mouth of David CONCERNING JUDAS, who became a guide to those who arrested Jesus. For he was numbered among us and was allotted his share in this ministry.” (Now this man acquired a field with the reward of his wickedness, and falling headlong he burst open in the middle and all his bowels gushed out. And it became known to all the inhabitants of Jerusalem, so that the field was called in their own language Akeldama, that is, Field of Blood.) “For it is written in the Book of Psalms, “‘May his camp become desolate, and let there be no one to dwell in it’; and “‘Let another take his office. - Acts 1:16-25

I am not speaking of all of you; I know whom I have chosen. BUT THE SCRIPTURES WILL BE FULFILLED, ‘He who ate my bread has lifted his heel against me.’ I AM TELLING YOU NOW, BEFORE IT TAKES PLACE, THAT WHEN IT DOES TAKE PLACE YOU MAY BELIEVE THAT I AM. Truly, truly, I say to you, whoever receives the one I send receives me, and whoever receives me receives the one who sent me.” After saying these things, Jesus was troubled in his spirit, and testified, “Truly, truly, I say to you, ONE OF YOU WILL BETRAY ME.” The disciples looked at one another, uncertain of whom he spoke. - John 13:18-26

So, I ask again - what say you? Could Judas have done otherwise, as to betray Christ? Could Judas have done otherwise based on his "free will?"

If you say yes, then how do you reconcile what Scripture has plainly stated concerning Judas' predetermined fate?

(1) that Scripture HAD TO BE FULFILLED concerning Judas - Acts 1:16-25

(2) that Scripture WILL BE FULFILLED concerning Judas - John 13:18-26 (be careful not to make Christ out to be a liar, a false prophet and a god other than Yahweh)

And if you say no:

(1) then you are acknowledging along with me that Judas actions were inevitable and certain to come to pass according to what Scripture has declared concerning him

(2) and also that his actions was not based upon his "free will" or MERELY God's foreknowledge (for God 'foreknew' that Judas could have not done otherwise as to fulfill scripture) BUT RATHER upon the Decree of God - seeing that what God has decreed would come to pass in spite of Judas's 'will' having been free or not..

Question for those who insist Judas was "free" to do otherwise:

So if God foreknew according to Judas 'free will' that it was possibly for him to do otherwise - could Judas as an actual fact still do otherwise than what Scripture has already declared concerning him by way of prophecy? If yes, then how is that possible without contradicting the scriptures? Chapter and Verse please.

Nonetheless, the eternal purposes of God are NOT dependant on any future so called free will choices of man; on the contrary; just the opposite, man's will is SOLELY dependant upon the Decree of God which consist of His purposes and plan to which no man can or will thwart!

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Many plans (according to his desire/will) are in a man's heart, But the purpose of the LORD will [ALWAYS] prevail. - Proverbs 19:21

The LORD nullifies the counsel of the nations; He frustrates the plans of the peoples (according to their desire/will). The counsel of the LORD [ALWAYS] stands forever, The plans of His heart from generation to generation. - Psalm 33:10-11

By Aaron Fisher

Babies born sinful according to scripture? What does God's Word actually teach?

 

Scripture states that God sent His Son in the likeness of SINFUL FLESH (romans 8:3). Question. Is this "flesh" spoken of in (romans 8:3) a reference to newly born babies as well? YES! Jesus has declared (john 3:6) that which is born of flesh (same Greek word regarding romans 8:3) is flesh and that which is born of Spirit is Spirit. Therefore, since newborn babies are born to the same "sinful" flesh that Jesus was sent into the world in the likeness of - infants along with every other class of people are born with a sinful nature just the same - for you cannot separate ones nature (innate natural desires) and ones flesh (sinful desires and works of sinful flesh) from one another; the two are inseparable. For example, if ones flesh is sinful; then ones nature is as well. Babies are born in sin; with a sin nature - deserving of God's wrath along with the rest of mankind simply because of their nature alone to which we are all born to. Mere flesh cannot enter the Kingdom of God; one must be born again - including infants if they are indeed to enter into the Kingdom at all. This is why Ephesians 2:3 speaks of the very nature of which man is born to as deserving of God's wrath because we are born sinful or as sinners in spite of having not done any evil deeds as of yet because our default disposition as a sinner when born is considered to be a slave to sin as to only obey unrighteousness. The very nature to which we are born can ONLY bear fruit which leads to death (romans 7:5). Therefore, the only fruit that any human being can bear according to their sinful nature would lead to condemnation apart from becoming born again. Man's very nature alone to which he was born is enough to send that person to the Lake of Fire. Sure, the scriptures state that mankind will be judged according to our works; however if one is not able to bear good fruit from any works according to their sinful nature; regardless of whatever defining characteristic you may put forth or assign to the individual - that person will still be condemned because that person while in his flesh apart from any works could NEVER bear fruit to please God nonetheless because of his nature. The unclean or impure according to sinful flesh to which we are born can't inherit the Kingdom of God; including newborn babies. The "nature" of the sinful baby must be changed in order for that baby to enter the Kingdom - and if the baby's nature must be changed; then prior to the change of that baby's nature; that baby by default could not enter the Kingdom but rather perish as to enter the Lake of Fire along with the rest of wicked sinners.

A FURTHER ARGUMENTATION

There is no condemnation for all those who are "in Christ" - ROMANS 8:1. Therefore, God has the right to judge everyone who is not "in Christ" but are yet still "in Adam" - including babies. Apart from any works; that being good or evil - that baby is still considered to be a sinner (ROMANS 5:19). Newborn babies are born into the world as a "sons of disobedience" (EPHESIANS 2:2) for this is his or her standing or status in the world; as a sinner. Furthermore, scripture declares God has a right to fashion some individuals as vessels of dishonor having been prepared beforehand (before they are born) for destruction; even though ALL OF MANKIND indeed stands condemned already. Consider Esau; his fate was sealed before he was born. If God sealed Esau's fate before he was born; then what's the difference between a baby that's already condemned prior to having been born and the condemnation beforehand for example of an unbelieving elderly individual having been born as well but who lived a long life but who's deeds are still considered evil nonetheless? There is no difference! They both are still considered to be sinners and they both will be condemned as sinners - one having been condemned without works as a sinner (newborn baby) and the other being condemned according to their works as a sinner (elderly individual); and rightfully so. There is no injustice with God; he has the right to fashion each vessel as He sees fit. If a baby is to be condemned; then that baby will be condemned as one who is a sinner without works having not been chosen beforehand prior to it's birth unto salvation. In order for you to argue against my position; then you would have to explain biblically - how is it possible for a baby who is found not to be "in Christ" when born be something other than as to not stand condemned before God as not "in Christ" but still "in Adam" upon their death on judgement day?

By Aaron Fisher 

Spiritual Blindness / Walking In Darkness / Ontologically / From Birth / Unable to See

I reached out to Leighton Flowers through Facebook Messenger March of 2021 and sent him this response regarding one of his videos to his assertion that sinful man is not born spiritually blind. To this day, he has not replied back. Unfortunately, he continues to speak falsehoods.

Scripturally, walking in DARKNESS corresponds with being BLIND (roman's 2:19, 1 john 2:11). Both walking in darkness and being blind constitutes as being UNABLE to SEE and understand spiritually the things of God. This truth stands in stark CONTRAST to those who walk in the LIGHT and have EYES TO SEE. Sinful man born at birth comes out of his mother's womb as to walk in darkness; therefore comes out the womb of his mother spiritually blind. If you say otherwise, then you will be falsely suggesting that sinful man at birth comes out of his mother's womb walking in Light; and in order for that to be true, you will also be falsely suggesting that sinful man at birth comes out of the womb as already born again, regenerated, and saved, for this is what it means as to "walk in the light". But this can not be case, for NO ONE comes out of the womb at birth already WALKING IN THE LIGHT or REGENERATED. 

In addition, sinful man from birth who inevitably walks in darkness does so because of his nature; that being of the 'old man' who is enslaved to sin and the sinful desires of the flesh IN CONTRAST to the 'new man' with a new nature who is enslaved to righteousness and has the power and ability to mortify the deeds of the flesh BY THE SPIRIT; a privilege the "old man" doesn't have because of his nature being void of the Spirit. It is the Holy Spirit IN MAN or NOT that is the dividing line between the two natures; that being IN CHRIST having the Spirit or IN ADAM without the Spirit. On one hand, the unbeliever being represented as the 'old man' can ONLY obey sin, unrighteousness, and the sinful desires of the flesh and therefore by default 'walks in darkness and is spiritually blind' BUT on the other hand, the believer by distinction has been freed from the power and enslavement of sin and the flesh desires and therefore can now freely obey the Spirit and righteousness; even though at times may yield themselves to the desires of the flesh whether it be momentarily or for a season. Nevertheless, the believer has been freed from the power of sin and have the power to obey as to 'walk in the light having eyes to see'.

Point being, the 'old man' can only obey sin and the 'new man' has been freed from only obeying sin but now righteousness as well. This fact, is due to the difference in the 'old and new mans' nature. The 'old man' can ONLY bear fruit unto death and the 'new man' bears fruit unto God. Nonetheless, both bears fruit - be it ACCORDING to their NATURE. The "nature" of any individual newly born is that of the "old man" or unbeliever; therefore they come out of their mother's womb as to "walk in darkness" AKA spiritually blind! 

Spiritually Blind from Birth! Leighton is once again wrong, according to the scriptures.

By Aaron Fisher

The Gift of Faith?

Everyone who believes that Jesus is the Christ has been born of God ~ 1 john 5:1

What is a gift? A gift is something that's freely given by the giver and not acquired by merit or entitlement and likewise without repayment. Biblical faith is a byproduct of a new heart according to God's grace and mercy. The "taking out of the stubborn heart of stone of a sinner and replacing it with a compliant heart of flesh" is a sole unilateral work of God - as in regeneration that leads to spiritual life. When God says, "I'll give you a new heart and a new Spirit and cause you to obey my statues" - He is strongly implying that obedience to His words of command can only be accomplished if a new heart has been granted by way of spiritual circumcision. When the command comes to "repent and believe" in the Good News of Jesus Christ; unless a new compliant heart of flesh has been granted prior to - the sinner will not be able to comply to the command of the Lord because he will still possess the old uncircumcised stubborn hostile heart of flesh. This is why, regeneration MUST precede faith. This is why, we say Biblical faith is a gift - for it is something that's freely given by God for those of whom He has particularly favored beforehand and as of result predestined before the foundation of the world to sonship by the 'means of faith' having been not given nor acquired by merit or entitled and likewise without repayment just the same - the very definition of a Gift!

By Aaron Fisher 

John 8 (God's Elect, the Children of Promise, and the Reprobate)

Can any of you prove me guilty of sin? If I am telling the truth, why don’t you believe me? Whoever belongs to God hears what God says. The reason you do not hear is that you do not belong to God.” - JOHN 8:46-47

At the onset, Jesus had acknowledged that these particular Jews were physical descendants of Abraham (john 8:37) but he denounced the idea that they were indeed spiritual descendants of Abraham according to faith in God (john 8:39-42) - as in the children of Promise; being those given to Him from the Father. Jesus understood that these particular Jews had been predestined to disobey the word of the Lord and to stumble over the stumbling stone as to perish; seeing that Christ Himself was that very stone - a rock of offense (isaiah 8:13-15, luke 20:17-18, matthew 21:42,1peter 2:6-8, and romans 9:32). This is why he asserted that the slave doesn't remain in the house forever; the son does (john 8:35). The slave or hired hand has no inheritance regarding the household of which he serves; the inheritance of the Father belongs to the natural born son. However, Christ was using this biblical fact to reveal to these Jews that they too were not considered to be sons of God as to have an inheritance because they were not given to Him as heirs according to the promise made to Abraham (genesis 17:7 and galatians 3:29). For it was not granted unto them to believe; this privilege is only reserved for those given to Christ; His sheep. These particular Jews in John 8 did not belong to God nor were among Christ sheep; if they were then they would have believed having been predestined as Children of Promise beforehand (genesis 17:7).

Mind you, Jesus denounced these Jews to be spiritual descendants of Abraham (which would have been demonstrated by their faith) PRIOR TO them actually having believed to indeed confirm the fact that the son of the slave woman (as not belonging to the Abrahamic Covenant) shall not share in the inheritance of the privileged son (child of promise) of the free woman (galatians 4:30) who indeed is of or truly belongs to the Abrahamic Covenant (Genesis 17:7). The son of the slave woman remains in spiritual bondage but the son of the free woman is set free from sin and his final destination is Jerusalem which is above (galatians 4:22-31). The Abrahamic Covenant promises salvation to all who belong to it; a particular group of people of whom God has chosen beforehand (genesis 17:7). God had promised beforehand to Abraham to be God to a particular people who would be forgiven and reconciled back to Him in right standing through His Son Jesus Christ. Therefore, salvation is inevitable for some and not others; for these particular group of people are namely; the Children of Promise who are to be saved. Not everyone is a child of promise; if so, then everyone would ultimately be saved. So, seeing that it is impossible for everyone to be considered a "child of promise" then it's likewise impossible for everyone  as in "all without exception" to ever come to saving faith. Furthermore, it is also impossible for anyone according to their "free will" to believe apart from already having been given to the Son prior to. Free will is not a factor in one's salvation; only the mercy and grace of God that was predetermined only toward the children of promise (romans 4:11-18 and hebrews 6:13-20). This is what is occuring in John 8. These particular Jews would not believe because they were not foreordained to believe. They were not of God's Elect. They were not the children of promise. They were in fact considered to be the reprobate of the Jews; those of whom God has passed over from birth for salvation (romans 9:11,13).

Jesus confirmed that it was impossible for these Jews to ever believe as to be saved; therefore their damnation was certain (romans 9:22). He acknowledged that they did not belong to God; therefore they were not to be counted as the spiritual descendants of Abraham who were promised to Him as heirs; the children of promise. For it is the privileged son who remains in God's house forever; not the child of the slave woman who was passed over as not belonging to the Abrahamic Covenant as to share in the inheritance. John 8 is a clear example as to prove; it is only those given to the Son beforehand that will believe and be saved - while excluding all others. No one can be saved apart from already belonging to the Abrahamic Covenant beforehand - proving that it is an impossibility for everyone as in all without exception to be saved; especially according to the so called "free will" of man. Those who will indeed perish - it is understood that they will have proven themselves to be reprobate.

By Aaron Fisher 

UNION WITH CHRIST.

Union with Christ aka "In Christ" -  Is based upon an unbreakable "possession" by the Father of a particular people that has been given to the Son from eternity past (ephesians 1:4) as to glorify Him. It is a union or possession unbreakable due to the fact that the Father has eternally and favorably loved a people as His own (ephesians 1:4-5) before time to the same degree as He has eternally loved His very own Son (john 17:22-23). God's ownership of a people before creation as to set them apart unto Himself for salvation; foreordaining them for redemption and the forgiveness of sins having been created in Christ Jesus and likewise foreordained unto good works is the very result of such an eternal union to which I speak of. Mind you, those who are in union with Christ as belonging to Him are His due to the Father's eternal love and are being kept by God's power and those kept are continuously dependent upon His love, faithfulness and power to remain in union as His.

In addition, God's elect have always been united or in union with Christ; for our union is also based upon belonging to Christ before the foundation of the world in an unbreakable relationship having been given to Him from the Father. There never was a "time" when we did not belong to Christ. Therefore, there never was a 'time' when we were not ultimately in union with Christ. However, as relating to 'time' - we are only momentarily separated from Christ as in a state of unbelief involving the plan of God as to be ultimately saved but this momentary separation does not mean we cease to belong to Him; as in union with Him. We still remain as Christ sheep regarding His relationship with and ownership of us; even in a state of unbelief OR even before our very own physical existence - as in, before creation.

By Aaron Fisher 

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The DECREE OF GOD.

The DECREE of God - Is not so much as a command but rather a previous determination of God before the Creation of the world (acknowledging that God is not subject to time but eternal) of what would or rather will come to pass as of a CERTAINTY resulting from his divine councel and will relating to His eternal purposes that will glorify Himself in all things.

The eternal purposes of God are predetermined seeing that they are determined before creation or time. The predetermined purposes of God are based upon a predetermined plan. Both, the eternal purposes and plan of God are on both sides of the same coin; they cannot be separated. Both are DELIBERATE ESSENTIAL commitments of God in reaching the same end goal. Furthermore, they (God's plan and purposes) both come to pass, not only by the desire/intentions of God's heart but more importantly by the will or determination of God which hearkens back to what He has eternally PURPOSED TO FULFILL temporally 'in time' - that being, all that He has pre-planned deriving from His perfect counsel; hence, the Decree of God.

FOREKNOWLEDGE and DECREE

The Decree or the Eternal Purposes of God precedes the future exhaustive knowledge of God for the purposes of God derive from His predetermined plan. To clarify; this plan is NOT based upon what all God knows in advance that will transpire but RATHER based upon His divine counsel in regards to what He has determined before time to come to pass in order to reach a specific end goal for His own glory. For example, if God has based His decree upon what He knows so called 'free creatures' would do in advance - then their "liberty" to do as they will apart from God's meticulous control to govern what He has purposed would indeed rob God of the glory that's due Him alone; for the creature would have become a sovereign unto Himself - seemingly able to thwart the will, eternal purpose, and plan of God, his Creator.

NO PURPOSES OF GOD SHALL BE THWARTED.

The Example: If God has predetermined for Creature A to physically turn left in order to fulfill a specific and necessary purpose but Creature A upon his own volition has the ability to refrain from turning left and do otherwise (and without any outside influence, or coercion including God's power) - then Creature A inevitably also has the freedom and ability to physically turn right instead and essentially undermine the 'will' of God and His purposes. If God has predetermined for Creature A to turn left for His own purposes and glory and His decree does not come to pass because of the 'freewill' of Creature A - then Creature A is his own sovereign unto himself and may very well even boast regarding his liberty as to be a self willed stand alone ruler which in return will ultimately lead to the sin of exalted pride and self glory before his Maker. 

This type of liberty and self glory of the creature cannot be according to Scripture. Even though God has seemingly given man some since of liberty to do as he will; however, man does not live his life according to absolute freedom. Man can only do what God has confined him to, for His very own purposes; God has deemed it so, for He will not give His glory to another. No flesh will have the opportunity to boast before the Lord; God will give no such leeway to sinful creatures for the sake of His holy name. No flesh will glory in His presence!

The LORD nullifies the plan of nations; He frustrates the plans of peoples. The councel of the LORD stands forever, The plans of His heart from generation to generation. - PSALMS 33:10-11

By Aaron Fisher

Autonomous Creatures?

    Created creatures cannot be created as truly autonomously free in light of God's decree; His eternal plan and purposes, and not to mention His own glory which also reveals and define the character and nature of God Himself. If the character and nature of God could not be freely fully expressed in light of His complete divine meticulous sovereignty relating to what He has created, then we as human creatures could not ever know, regarding the true scriptural identity of the only self proclaiming living God who has always existed as one but yet three in persons (Yahweh) - and we could never rightfully worship Him as such as He is also properly deserving of our praise; for His true essence and being would be distorted through the lens of all things created by the creature if the scriptural revelation of Himself was denounced and hidden. I ask you, where is the glory of God to be found in such a notion as this? If you take away those things that make God out to be God; for example, such as His eternal decree, then the creatures view of God would not be based upon biblical actuality itself - for God is indeed Holy and sits above's the Heavens but nonetheless simultaneously meticulously governs His creation; those things upon the earth unto His own glory. If this was not the case - the so called "free creature" would be in danger by default as outright stealing or sharing the glory of God which is due to Him alone, hence; His praise according to His divine holiness or separateness. An eternal decree of God prevents such glory and boasting from what has been created; thus God's character is not maligned before man nor His holy name brought to a level of disrespect and ultimately blasphemy.

    In addition, it is an impossibility for God to create "free creatures" for God's glory will never nor could it ever be compromised as to be diminished by those things created because God's exaltation of Himself is both rightly and justly merited as Creator. And because of this truth, God does not lower His Majesty or Splendor for the sake of the creature. God is altogether glorious - "worthy is the Lord our God!" Furthermore, God's Majesty is founded in His attributes and His attributes are part of and consistent with His nature. Therefore, God cannot compromise the Majesty of who He is for the sake of the creature for this very thing would diminish His Being before all things created. Even so, just how could the creature exalt Himself higher than a being who is uncreated, eternal and likewise their maker? Again, this is an impossibility. For example, If man was "free" from God's decree to do otherwise, then he would have a reason to boast before the Lord; he would have become a sovereign (god) unto himself (ezekiel 28:2) possessing an ability to seemingly undo or thwart the will of the eternal God; but there is no other God or Creator besides Yahweh and so God ensures the impossibility of a "free" creature to do other than what God has predetermined leaving absolutely no room for sinful man to boast before Him. Even though God's glory could never actually be diminished in spite of the created being, He only ensures the impossibility of boasting for the sake of His name and I would also argue for the sake of the creature regarding ultimate judgement by establishing before creation an eternal decree distinguishing Himself as the only living and true God. Alone, to God be the glory!

By Aaron Fisher

God is UNABLE for it is IMPOSSIBLE for Him to create Libertarian Free Creatures!

God would not nor neither could He create a "libertarian free" creature. God's nature confines Him to His own holiness or separateness from those things that He has created. And because of this truth, although God may posses the ability to create, He remains unable to create a libertarian free creature; according to His own nature. Otherwise, you would have to ask yourself - who's freedom would ultimately triumph over the other's in regards to carrying out their own intended personal 'will' based upon their desires - the Creator or the creature? 

The mere fact the scriptures emphatically proclaims that God has ordained for Himself predetermined eternal purposes that must come to pass and that no man has the ability to thwart His plan or purpose - is a clear revelation that sinful man's will is undeniably not free. How can you have man with a presumably libertarian free will that is able to do other than what the scriptures say God has already predetermined to come to pass regarding His purposes?  Sinful man CANNOT! In light of this fact, there is no such thing as libertarian free will. Just as God's nature as Deity restricts Him from creating a libertarian free creature because of the eternal purposes He has already preordained to come to pass; likewise, sinful man is also restricted because of His nature as mortal leaving him with the impossibility to ever thwart the plan, purposes, and will of the eternal God! 

Furthermore, God's character, attributes, holiness, glory, majesty are all undermined by creating such creatures as to be so called "free" - these are the very things that set God apart from His creation. In addition, God's decree or His eternal purposes are in direct relation to His nature. As it relates to God's nature, when His attributes are brought fourth and made known; the beauty of His Majesty is then visible. God will not compromise or afford to the creature what solely belongs to God and Him alone; that being, His glory. God's glory is seen by way of revealing His attributes and His attributes are the complete personification of His nature. However, the process to which by God has chose to express His attributes according to His nature is based upon an eternal decree. What God has predetermined beforehand; that is, before creation by way of a decree is carried out "in time" to manifest His character. Therefore, God's nature itself won't allow him to do as such - create a "free" creature. Just as it is impossible for God to lie because of His own nature; His nature, likewise won't allow Him to create a free creature. Or in other words, He is unable to create free creatures because of His nature and as a result God's decree is necessary to substantiate this truth. For example, if God was to lie, then that would undermine His character and Being and all that the scriptures say He is not. So, if it was possible for God to create "free creatures" then this too would undermine His character and Being as well. God's character is in association with His self ascribed glory and His glory is associated with His Majesty or ALL that His Being is. And if these things are compromised because of the "free will" of the creature; then we have not the God of the scriptures.

There cannot be two sovereigns that reside in one sole universe. You won't find in scripture where the creature will ever prevail over the Creators will; no matter how much one might try. God is the only sovereign and by necessity; what He has predetermined before creation to take place after creation will always come to pass in spite of the will of the creature. The creature has no "free will" to do other than what God has already ordained to happen - period. If you deny the God of the scriptures to the point where He cannot fully express or reveal Himself as He sees fit as Sovereign then you end up with a God foreign to that of the scriptures. Even as defined by the scriptures themselves - literally a false God or a god like all others according to the vain imaginations of sinful men hearts. However, and with much praise; thanks be to God - there is only "One True God" who not only won't but is unable to create "free creatures" for the sake of His Being and His holy name. God will not share His glory with another as Creator due to the nature of who He truly is!

IN SHORT:

Since God has determined to reveal Himself to His creation by way of His attributes and His attributes are a complete personification of His nature; then it is impossible for God to create a "free will" creature seeing that His revealing of His attributes "in time" are based upon what He has already pre-determined beforehand to come to pass according to a divine plan; in spite of the actions of man because the fulfilment of His plans are not dependent upon man but soley on God who has promised. If the "free creature" could do other than what God has previously determined; then the creature would have made the God of scriptures out to be a liar. What God has (1) determined beforehand to bring to pass; (2) reveals His attributes; (3) which are the very essence of His nature; and cannot be compromised by the creature - for these three things are inseparable from one another as to rightly identify the ONE and true living God!. If just one of these inseparable distinguishing traits is interrupted or denied simply by the "will" of the creature; then we do not have the God of the Bible but a foreign god that we do not know.

LASTLY AND IN CONCLUSION,

We, students of the Scriptures have the privilege of learning and knowing about God's holy nature because of His attributes that are revealed in scripture. God reveals His attributes based upon what He has predetermined beforehand to occur in order that we may know of His nature in keeping with His eternal purposes. However, God revealing His attributes shows forth His glory. God's decree before creation according to His eternal purposes reveals His character after creation or "in time" that we may truly come to understand and know Him as it relates to what the scriptures asserts as the "depth of the riches and wisdom and knowledge of God" which demonstrates that His judgements are unsearchable and His ways are past finding out. No one has truly known the mind of the Lord nor been His counselor as to have first given to Him anything as to repaid back. ALL things are from Him, by Him and to Him for His glory; to Him be honor and glory forever!

By Aaron Fisher

So that the "world" may believe and know that you have sent me ~ Jesus Christ (John 17:21 and John 17:23)

It seems as though many Christians misunderstand when John says - "so that the world may believe and know that you sent me" regarding JOHN 17:21 and 17:23. They assume that the "world" spoken of is "all inclusive" - as in, including everyone without exception. However, a closer look will disprove such an interpretation. All one has to do is look at the context. Early on, when Jesus says "He's not praying for the world" - He was exclusively praying for the Apostles APART FROM those who will believe through their word (some several verses later). So when Jesus states that - "I do not ask for these (Apostles) only, but also for those will believe in me through their word" - He has NOW included the "WORLD" of all those given to Him; going beyond just the Apostles regarding His prayer (john 17:20). A very crucial and necessary point - So when Jesus states, "so that the world may believe" - He is referencing those who will believe (I do not ask for these only) regarding His prayer which goes beyond just the Apostles. In other words; the very ones Jesus additionally prays for (john 17:20) are of the "world" that has believed that the Father sent the Son. When Jesus mentions the "world" - he is NOT referring to an additional group of people other than for whom Jesus has prayed (john 17:20). NO. The "world" that has believed that the Father sent the Son (vs 21) are the very ones Jesus additionally prayed for (vs 20) having gone beyond just praying for the Apostles early on.

Likewise when Jesus says - "I in them and you in me, that they may become perfectly one, so that the 'world' may know that you sent me and loved them even as you love me" - He is referring to the very same ones He additionally has prayed for (john 17:20) having gone beyond just praying for the Apostles; those given to Him BUT have simply now included the "world" of all those given to Him as well. Mind you, when Jesus prayed soley for the Apostles; He prayed that they may "be one" even as the Son and the Father are one too (17:11). However, now, His prayer has gone beyond the Apostles and into the "world". The same ones Jesus has additionally prayed for (john 17:20) are the very same ones He now prays for that they too may become "perfectly one" along with the Apostles (john 17:23). So that - the "world" (of whom Jesus additionally prayed for, vs 20) may know that you sent me and loved them even as you loved me. The "world" of those who will believe and know that the Father sent the Son is the "world" of those that has been given to Him and that Jesus additionally has prayed for (vs 20), - again, having gone beyond "just" praying for the Apostles. The "world" in question who may believe and know that the Father sent the Son is in reference to those Jesus additionally has prayed for (I do not ask for these only) NOT some additional group of people of the "world" who were NEVER given to the Son nor EVER had the promise of Eternal Life; such an argument is read into the text. Many Christians want to make the "world" spoken of in 17:21 and 17:23 as relating to a group of people other than those given to the Son having the Promise of Eternal Life. However, when Jesus states - "so that the world may believe and know that you sent me; it is always in reference to those given to the Son and have the Promise of Eternal Life. No one outside or beyond this group of people have the possibility of ever obtaining Eternal Life. You must be given to the Son in order to obtain eternal life (john 17:2). Everyone is not given; therefore everyone will not obtain life.

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(1) I am praying for them (the Apostles only). I am not praying for the world (excluding everyone else) but for those whom you have given me for they are yours - VERSE 9

(2) I do not ask for these (the Apostles) only but also for those (of the world) who will believe in me through their (the Apostles) word, that they (those of the world who Christ additionally prays for going beyond just the Apostles, vs 20) may all be one just as you Father are in me and I in you, that they (those of the world who Christ additionally prays for going beyond just the Apostles, vs 20) also may be in us so that the world (not just the Apostles of whom Christ initially prayed for but those of the world whom Christ additionally prayed for, 20) may believe that you sent me - VERSE 20-21

(3) I in them and you in me, that they (those of the world who Christ additionally prays for going beyond just the Apostles, vs 20) may become perfectly one, so that the world (not just the Apostles of whom Christ initially prayed for but those of the world whom Christ additionally prayed for, 20) may know that you sent me and loved them (those of the world who Christ additionally prays for going beyond just the Apostles, vs 20) even as you loved me. Father, I desire that they (not just the Apostles of whom Christ initially prayed for but those of the world whom Christ additionally prayed for, 20) also whom you haven given me (those Christ additionally prayed for, vs 20) may be with me where i am to see my glory that you have given me because you loved me before the foundation of the world - VERSE 23-24

CONCLUSION:

Those of whom Christ additionally prays for (vs 20) are the "world" OR of the "world" that Christ speaks of - "so that the 'world' may believe you sent me. The very ones Christ additionally prays for (vs 20) are the same ones who will believe "of the world" that the Father sent the Son (vs 21,23, and 25); not some additional group of people not spoken of in the text other than those given to the Son (vs 2, 9, 10, 12, and 24). 

By Aaron Fisher 

Christ, the Propitiation for the sins of the "whole" world (1 john 2:2)?

Christ is the Propitiation, not only for our (Jews) sins, but for the sins of the whole world (including) Gentiles; but in particular - all those who were promised Eternal Life before creation/times eternal  1 John 2:2, 2:25, Titus 1:1-2 - God's Elect and the Lord's sheep. This is my premise.

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I won't be exegeting all of 1 John - 5 John but I will examine and point out what is necessary to make my argument. First off, 1st, 2nd, 3rd, 4th, and 5th Chapter of 1st John is a follow up to what John had already wrote regarding the Gospel of John. Secondly, the Book of 1st John is written to CHRISTIANS!!! 

John is reminding the reader (believers) of what he wrote earlier in - the Gospel of John (Chapter 1 - 21). He had stated specifically why he wrote these five chapters - "so that you MAY KNOW you have eternal life" 1 John 5:13. Throughout these five chapters, John was challenging them as new believers to do what is right as newly born again children of God. He exhorted them to love and obey; but if anyone sinned - God was faithful to forgive sin upon confession of sin (1 John 1:8-10). John showed that if anyone continued to sin then they were really not born again after all. He made a distinction between the children of the devil and the children of God (1 John 3:10). John goes on to encourage the believers to 'love one another'. John also Warned them not to be like Cain, who belonged to the evil one and murdered his brother - letting them know if anyone hates his brethren is a murderer at heart. But rather we should willing to lay down our lives for one another by following Christ example toward us (1 John 3:11-24). John continued to challenge the believers to "test the Spirits, to see if they're from God." There are some denying that the Son came in the flesh; which is - the spirit of the antichrist (1 John 4:1-3). Lastly, John ends with stating "everyone who believes that Jesus is the Christ is born of God, and everyone who loves the Father loves everyone born of Him (5 John 1:1). This is how we know we love the children of God by obeying out his commands.

With all that said, I have demonstrated that 1 John was WRITTEN TO CHRISTIANS. So, when John states in 1 John 2:2 that "Christ is the propitiation for OUR sins, and NOT for OURS ONLY but ALSO for the SINS OF THE WHOLE WORLD - the "whole world" is best interpreted "the whole world, consisting of Jew and Gentile" - see John 11:45-52. Those who determine to interpret the "whole world" as ALL PEOPLE without exception has gravely mishandled the text and not understood John's intent. Not only is the "whole world" is in reference to Jew and Gentile but it is ALSO in reference to believers and/or all those who WILL BELIEVE; Jew and Gentile But IN PARTICULAR, Christ Sheep - those who were PROMISED ETERNAL LIFE (1 John 2:25, 5:11). In other words, Christ is the propitiation for all those who HAVE BELIEVED and all those who WOULD BELIEVE and THESE ARE Christ Sheep - those who BELONG to Him and have ALWAYS BELONGED to Him from eternity past (ephesians 1:4, 1 Peter 1:20, 2:24-25). 1 John 4:10 states " In this is love, not that we have loved God but that he LOVED US and SENT HIS SON [into the world] to be the propitiation for OUR [sheep] sins. FURTHERMORE, 1 John 3:16 states "By this we know love, that He [Christ] laid down His life FOR US [sheep], and we ought to lay down our lives for the brothers".

The conclusion regarding these passages of Scripture and the surrounding CONTEXT of 1 John 2:2 is:

(1) The "whole world" is best interpreted "Jew and Gentile" - John 11:45-52.
(2) The "whole world" regarding this letter is in reference to believers; all those who have believed but also all those who will believe - 5 John 1:1, 1 John 2:25, 5:11
(3) All those who will believe are explicitly Christ Sheep - 1 John 2:25, 5:11, John 10:26
(4) Christ is the Propitiation for all those who were Promised Eternal Life ONLY - 1 John 2:25, 5:11, 1 John 4:10, John 10:27-28
(5) God sent His Son into the world to SPECIFICALLY save His Sheep - 1 John 4:10
(6) Christ laid down His life SPECIFICALLY for His OWN Sheep - 1 John 3:16
(7) ONLY Christ sheep WILL believe EXCLUDING all others - 1 John 3:10, John 8:43-47, John 10:26

I used several passages of Scripture in 1 John as supporting examples among many to show that the Atonement of Christ is EXPLICITLY said to be for ONLY God's Elect/Sheep. In doing so, I maintain that Christ DID NOT enter the world to make Salvation MERELY POSSIBLE for all men WITHOUT EXCEPTION but rather Christ came to redeem a PARTICULAR PEOPLE to HIMSELF. This is the biblical testimony of Scripture.

By Aaron Fisher

The GRACE of God has appeared to ALL men (Titus 2:11)?

God Offers Salvation To All People (Titus 2:11)?

Who is the "all people" Paul is referencing to in Titus 2:11? Well, those whom he has already identified in the previous verses; the different people groups that has claimed Jesus Christ as their God and Savior (vs 10).

Older Men (vs 2)
Older Women (vs 3)
Young Women/Wives (vs 4 &5)
Bondservants (vs 9)
Our Savior (vs 10)
Bringing Salvation to all believers (vs 11)
Training Us (vs 12)

Titus teaching is to train these believers (vs 1 and 12) to renounce ungodliness. This verse is NOT teaching that the Grace of God has appeared to all men without exception but to those who are already saved or being saved - and in particular, the Elect of God who had already been promised eternal life before time or creation (1 timothy 1:1-2); therefore, the Grace of God will only appear ultimately to God's Elect, not everyone without exception because everyone without exception has not been promised eternal life.

The "all" (vs11) is the "us" (vs12) and the "us" are believers (vs13-14). However, these believers, Paul has classified into categories.

Older Men (vs 2)
Older Women (vs 3)
Young Women/Wives (vs 4 &5)
Bondservants (vs 9)

So, the 'grace' that has appeared to "all men" that brings salvation is a grace regarding Titus teaching to which he was entrusted by the Apostle Paul (vs1) enabling those different categories of believers being trained to renounce ungodliness .... within their specific role as a Christian whether it be older men, older women, bondservants, ect ......

The same grace that has appeared to "all" that brings salvation; is the same grace that is training the "all" - and just who is it that this grace is "training" that has brought salvation to? Older men, Older women, Younger woman, Bondservants, ect ......

In context, this is the "all men" that the Grace of God has appeared to. The same grace that has appeared, is the same grace that trains; but only toward a classified group of believers who are ultimately the Elect.

In addition, the "grace of God that brings salvation to all people" is not in reference to initial salvation as to be born again for those whom Paul was addressing were already saved but the salvation that's being addressed in verse 11 is in reference to the "the appearing of the glory of our great God and Savior Jesus Christ". This salvation is considered to be related to the believers glorification at Christ appearing.

ÇONTEXT ALWAYS MATTERS!

By Aaron Fisher