The GRACE of God has appeared to ALL men (Titus 2:11)?

God Offers Salvation To All People (Titus 2:11)?

Who is the "all people" Paul is referencing to in Titus 2:11? Well, those whom he has already identified in the previous verses; the different people groups that has claimed Jesus Christ as their God and Savior (vs 10).

Older Men (vs 2)
Older Women (vs 3)
Young Women/Wives (vs 4 &5)
Bondservants (vs 9)
Our Savior (vs 10)
Bringing Salvation to all believers (vs 11)
Training Us (vs 12)

Titus teaching is to train these believers (vs 1 and 12) to renounce ungodliness. This verse is NOT teaching that the Grace of God has appeared to all men without exception but to those who are already saved or being saved - and in particular, the Elect of God who had already been promised eternal life before time or creation (1 timothy 1:1-2); therefore, the Grace of God will only appear ultimately to God's Elect, not everyone without exception because everyone without exception has not been promised eternal life.

The "all" (vs11) is the "us" (vs12) and the "us" are believers (vs13-14). However, these believers, Paul has classified into categories.

Older Men (vs 2)
Older Women (vs 3)
Young Women/Wives (vs 4 &5)
Bondservants (vs 9)

So, the 'grace' that has appeared to "all men" that brings salvation is a grace regarding Titus teaching to which he was entrusted by the Apostle Paul (vs1) enabling those different categories of believers being trained to renounce ungodliness .... within their specific role as a Christian whether it be older men, older women, bondservants, ect ......

The same grace that has appeared to "all" that brings salvation; is the same grace that is training the "all" - and just who is it that this grace is "training" that has brought salvation to? Older men, Older women, Younger woman, Bondservants, ect ......

In context, this is the "all men" that the Grace of God has appeared to. The same grace that has appeared, is the same grace that trains; but only toward a classified group of believers who are ultimately the Elect.

In addition, the "grace of God that brings salvation to all people" is not in reference to initial salvation as to be born again for those whom Paul was addressing were already saved but the salvation that's being addressed in verse 11 is in reference to the "the appearing of the glory of our great God and Savior Jesus Christ". This salvation is considered to be related to the believers glorification at Christ appearing.

ÇONTEXT ALWAYS MATTERS!

By Aaron Fisher

Saving Grace is a Unique and Particular Grace that's not granted to all men but Only a select few; God's Elect (Ephesians 2:4-10).

SAVING GRACE is a particular grace that's not granted to all men but only a chosen few whom God has predetermined to unmeritly favor in regards to their salvation. This grace is distinct from all other graces bestowed by God seeing that only a select group can benefit from this unique grace. We see this confirmation of such grace particularly in Ephesians Chapter 1 and 2. The saving grace the Apostle Paul speaks of (ephesians 2:4-10) is in conjunction with Gods choosing and predestining before the foundation of the world a particular people as adopted sons to be holy and blameless (ephesians 1:4-5). Therefore, this particular grace rules out the "rest of mankind" (eph.1:3) or "sons of disobedience" whom God has left to remain in their sins being still deserving of wrath (ephesians 5:5-12) from ever benefitting from such grace.

In order for the "rest of mankind" or the "sons of disobedience" that God has passed over as to remain in their sins to benefit from this unique and particular saving grace - then they too must have been chosen in Christ and predestined as well before the foundation of the world to partake of any and such spiritual blessing (ephesians 1:3). Furthermore, those of whom God neither chose or predestined before creation also would have to been among those for whom Jesus had died for (ephesians 5:1-2) in order for them to be redeemed by His blood and their sins forgiven (ephesians 1:7) of which they were not. To argue otherwise, would be to undermine the love of God for a specific people unto His own glory and to assert or demand that God must love everyone as in all without exception in the very same manner for He only "in love" predestined before the foundation of the world those whom He foreknew; a particular people for His own glory while passing over the rest. Furthermore, to also argue against God having chose and predestined a select people unto salvation would call into question His wisdom, counsel, and judgement as if they are somehow flawed or misguided and not considered perfect in and of themselves seeing that God is perfect in all His ways as Paul goes on to rightly proclaim (ephesians 1:8-10). The grace or favor of God is only extended towards a select few of whom He has both foreknew and foreloved.

By Aaron Fisher

John 6:44: Unconditional Election & Irresistible Grace? (Responding to Leighton Flowers)

The notorious John 6 passage. Leighton's argument and understanding of the text is that the "one" coming (the second "him") is essentially coming according to his own "free will" and possess the ability in and of himself to either continue to come (accept Christ) or not (reject Christ) as in not effectually drawn by God to be raised up. However, Leighton Flowers outrightly ignores context and should not be taken seriously in his misinterpretation of John 6. In fact, in order for Leighton's interpretation of John 6 to be deemed accurate; the "one" coming to Christ (the second "him") according to John 6:44 MUST have the 'option' of possessing some sort of ability apart from God as not to come or freely reject Christ. However, according to John 6:37 - no such "option" is granted to the "one" who is "coming".

And therein lies the major problem with Leighton's interpretation of the text. John 6:37 is crystal clear - "all that the Father gives me WILL come to me, and whoever or the one coming to me I will NEVER cast out. The Greek mé (3361) as in NEVER or SHALL NOT cast out in regards to 6:37; denotes an impossibility or ruling out the possibility for the Son to cast out the one "coming to Him". Therefore, it is IMPOSSIBLE for the one whom the Father draws as to come to Christ as to not be "effectually" drawn as to believe and ultimately be raised up; for the same one that that Son will never "cast out" is the very same one that is purposely drawn by the Father and comes to Christ. If the purpose of the Father's 'drawing' is for everyone of all that has been given to the Son to look to the Son as to believe in Him - then why would the Son reject the "one coming" due to the fact that the Father has purposely drawn the "one coming" as for Christ to lose none of all that has been given to Him according to the Father's will? If such a rejection of Christ is possible; then the Father's will has been denied by the so called 'free will" of the creature.

And If the one that comes to Christ is never cast out by the Son (as in ruling out the possibility of being cast out); then how is it possible for the one coming to Christ not to ultimately believe since the one that is never cast out by Him is likewise raised up on the last day according to Christ?

Furthermore, the one "coming" to Christ does so because it is the will of the Father for them to do so (john 6:37-38, 40). In addition, the one also "coming" to Christ must be enabled to do so by the Father as well (john 6:44, 65). So if the one "coming" to Christ has the ability/option to reject Christ; as in NOT being effectually drawn by the Father then such an assertion as Leighton suggest would turn upside down the Father's purpose of having the Son as to lose none of all that He has given Him and raise it up on the last day (john 6:39) AND would likewise simultaneously undermine the mission of the Son of having to come down from Heaven to begin with (john 6:38-39) - for it is the Father's will that "everyone" of "all" that has been given to the Son who in return looks to the Son and believes shall be raised up (john 6:40).

This is why the Son will NEVER (as in no possibility of) cast out the one "coming" to Him for it is the Father's will for the one "coming" not to reject Christ (john 6:39-40) but instead be effectually drawn as to fulfill the Father's will through the Son having everyone given to the Son look to the Son and believe as to be raised up on the last day!

Conclusion: there is NO contextual interpretation of the text that would justify the one "coming" as "freely' coming; as in having the option or ability not to come or reject Christ. Leighton is once again biblically wrong!

Leighton's Commentary:

By, Aaron Fisher.

Leighton Flowers WRONG on Predestination!!!

GRACE AND PEACE, BRETHREN. (also see video below)

      Leighton Flowers acknowledges that the Bible indeed speaks in regards to predestination. .However, he absolutely has a misunderstanding of what predestination actually teaches. He emphatically denies that the Scriptures teaches that God has chose and predestined a particular group of people unto Himself before the foundation of the world for salvation. But is Leighton correct in his assertion? The Scriptures mentions predestination approximately six times (Acts 4, verse 28, Romans 8, verse 29, Roman 7, verse 30, 1 corinthians 2, verse 7, ephesians 1,verse 5, and Ephesians 1, verse 11).It is the Greek word 'proorizo'. It literally means to predetermine or foreordain. Also, in some instances, it can mean "marked out beforehand" .Out of the six instances where the Greek word proorizo is used, only five usage of the word is associated with God's elect. However, all six usage of this Greek word that's found in Scripture is in reference to an action by God that transpired before the foundation of the world. God has predestined essentially in each instance of the word 'proorizo' {before the foundation of the world}

.     Leighton states that "I know that I'm going to heaven because God has predestined for believers to go to heaven". Technically, that's not true .Nowhere in Scripture is the Greek word 'proorizo' used as describing God having predetermining believers for heaven .Just the opposite. God has predetermined those whom he foreknew will be conformed to the bodily image of His Son (Romans 8, verse 29).It would be unbiblical to equate those whom God foreknew as believers and no other text of Scripture implies as such. The text plainly states that God predestined those whom he foreknew. In other words, God foreknowing of a particular people preceded his predestining .Furthermore, God's predestining of a people likewise precedes his 'call' of the very same people to Himself by means of the Gospel message .If God has predestined a people prior to the call of the very same people by way of the Gospel, then those whom he foreknew were not believers, but unbelievers -having not heard, as to have been called as of yet by means of the Gospel. God foreknew, predestined, called, justified, and then glorified His elect (the order of salvation). In addition, when the apostle Paul states that God predestined "us" for adoption to Himself as sons; God was not predestining 'believers' for adoption as sons. God had predestined those of the Ephesian Church who had 'not yet existed' as a people for adoption before the foundation of the world. Seeing that God elected the very same "us" before the foundation of the world to be holy and blameless as well -when no one had been born as of yet. Mind you, God's predestining precedes his call of a people through the Gospel. As we saw in Romans 8. God 'marked us out" beforehand for adoption as sons prior to his call. In fact, this 'marking out' beforehand or predestining was before the foundation of the world in the same manner as God having chose "us". The question remains, who are these particular people whom God foreknew? Well, the preceding verse tells us; those whom God foreknew are those for whom 'all things work together, who now love God'(Romans 8 verse 28).Paul is speaking about those believers who groan inwardly ,having the first fruits of the Spirit, waiting eagerly for adoption as sons, the redemption of their bodies having been saved based upon this hope (Romans 8, verses 23 to 24).Paul speaks of this hope in the midst of the Ephesian believers sufferings (Romans 8, verse 18).Paul encourages these believers in light of their inward groanings, informing them that the Spirit intercedes on their behalf according to the will of God. It is because of this fact that this is how the Ephesian believers, or all believers for that matter, can know and rest assured that all things will work together for their good in the midst of suffering - thanks to the Spirit, who intercedes on our behalf in our weaknesses. However, when Paul speaks of God foreknowing these particular believers, this foreknowing is not only in reference to God knowing them prior to his call of them as believers by way of the Gospel, but God ultimately foreknew them before the foundation of the world .Do you recall when I earlier made the claim that God has predestined in each instance of the Greek word proorizo {before the foundation of the world}? Well, when Paul speaks of God having chose 'us' in Christ before the foundation of the world, we can altogether agree, however, that no man existed prior to the foundation of the world. Although God, who is not bound by time, knew or rather foreknew those whom he chose in Christ even before they existed. This is why Paul could go on to say that God predestined to sonship the very same ones he likewise chose before the foundation of the world to be holy and blameless (Ephesians 1, verses 4 to 5).So when Paul states that for those whom God foreknew, he predestined (in Romans), and God having predestined the same group of people He chose before the foundation of the world,(in Ephesians), this predestining is always in reference to before creation, even though it may not be directly stated in every instance where the word appears. God has indeed predestined a people prior to the call of the gospel, but ultimately he has predestined beforetime began or before the foundation of the world, in each instance of the word (1.Corinthians 2, verse 7). 

     Lastly, Leighton makes an erroneous claim that somehow, if God has, according to his sovereign prerogative, chose a particular people before the foundation of the world to believe unto salvation, then such a decree by God would deem to be done so arbitrarily, as in God's will, would be considered arbitrary to the neglect of those who were not chose, leading ultimately to their damnation. Leighton contributes such a 'will' by God as irrational and God unjustly, having shown partiality to some at the expense of others. It's true, God does not show partiality. But what does this actually mean? Well, God does not show partiality or favor for merely one group of people, (the Jews) but he has determined to extend the same saving grace towards other groups of people, (the Gentiles or the nations) as well. However, this is not to say that God is restricted in showing favor to certain individuals among both groups; for this is what the Scriptures consistently teach. When God saves, he calls out from among both groups; Jew and Gentile, not "every" Jew and Gentile without exception, as some falsely claim. Leighton has misunderstood this teaching. In my opinion, Leighton likes to use the word arbitrary against those who teach unconditional election because he negatively associates the term with an evil dictator or a capricious judge - but wrongly so, when it comes to Scripture. He thinks those who teach unconditional election that their God is simply irrational, unjust, and not found in Scripture. It is apparent that Leighton has become extremely frustrated with the doctrine of predestination, accurately taught and understood, because God has not entirely revealed to Him or us why he chose beforehand one person over another for salvation, other than to reveal that he has predestined a particular people unto Himself as sons - in love and for his own glory. God has eternally loved those he has predestined. But it is also apparent Leighton is not the least satisfied with what God has graciously chosen to reveal or not reveal; according to his word .Leighton is seemingly demanding of God more than what God has determined, as if God owes Leighton or any other sinful man for that matter, a detailed explanation of His actions (romans 9, verse 20).The apostle Paul states that God chose a particular people before the foundation of the world to be holy and blameless, (ephesians 1, verse 4), and predestined them to sonship (ephesians 1, verse five).However, notice who God DID NOT choose, nor neither predestined, but essentially passed over for salvation - the "rest of mankind". So, did God really predestined a particular people to himself, as sons to the neglect of the rest or the rest of humanity, as Scripture states (ephesians 2:3)? It, seems as though the Apostle Paul has taught the very same thing as those of us who also teach unconditional election. Leighton Flowers, is so wrong on predestination. And unfortunately, he is leading many people astray according to his misunderstanding. I pray the Lord will open his eyes to know the truth of Scripture.

by Aaron Fisher

..... That men should "seek God" and perhaps feel their way toward him and find him (acts 17:26-27)?

Are the Scriptures contradicting itself? How can Paul say that men would seek God (acts 17:27) while at the same time say there is none who seeks after God (romans 3:11)?

In regards to Acts 17, the reason Paul now mentions men perhaps seeking God as to find Him is because of past ignorance of who the one true God is but their ignorance as stated in the scriptures no longer remains (acts 17:30) since Christ appointed as judge by the Father has now been raised from the dead - so now all men are without excuse as to who the one true God is as Paul was attempting to explain to those in Anthens. And because of Christ resurrection as judge, it is now, that all men everywhere is commanded to repent because of this fact for judgement is certain to come. The seeking of God (vs 17) is in conjunction with all men now being  commanded to repent (vs 30) because their remains no more ignorance regarding the one true God since Christ has now been raised as proof from the dead to be judge over all mankind. However, those who will have indeed repented, will have done so by seeking God by the Spirit that is working in them. This is why Paul can say in Romans 3:11 without it being a contradiction of scripture that there are none who seek God because those who do not possess the ability or desire by the Spirit to repent will never seek God but remain stubborn of heart in there sin and evil doing in opposition to God. The scripture does not contradict itself regarding Acts 17:26-28 and Romans 3:11. The scriptures are not saying on one hand there is none that seeks after God (romans 3:11) and on the other hand they're are some who do (acts 17:27). In order for one to have the desire to obey and repent that person's heart must be changed (romans 2:5 & 29). It is the person with a new heart that seeks God and will inevitably repent and believe. It is only a new regenerated heart that has attained godly desires as to obey and repent; not the old stubborn uncircumcised heart bent toward evil and evil desires. The Spirit is at work within a person PRIOR to them repenting and believing for it is the Spirit alone that convicts of sin and gives understanding to what God has spoken. No one will ever repent and believe if they are not convicted of sin nor have understanding of what God has required of them FIRST by the Spirit (john 8:43 & 47, john 6:60 & 63).

In addition, prior to Christ being raised from the dead, God overlooked men's ignorance regarding who the one true God is.  But it's not as though sinful man was not seeking God prior to Christ resurrection; however, now that the Father has given proof that there will be judgement concerning man's sin by raising His Son appointed as Judge from the dead - men are now without excuse as to be ignorant of the one true God who does not live in temples or is in need of anything as those in Anthens did. And now that there remains no more ignorance regarding who the One true God is - in sinful mans attempt to seek God as it was in Anthens; all men are commanded to repent of their sins because the true God has fixed a day of judgement for all men. The seeking of God Paul is referring to after Christ resurrection is in conjunction with sinful man's understanding of truth, acknowledgement of his sin, and genuine repentance according to God's command. This "seeking of God" is impossible without the Spirit's work beforehand giving one the desire to seek and the ability to understand and repent. Men indeed sought out God but it was done in ignorance. Sinful man did not nor neither can he understand because of his enslavement to the power and control of sin (romans 3:9) and.also stubborn darkened heart. Therefore, no man will ever seek God apart from the Spirit's initial internal work upon the sinful man's heart.

By Aaron Fisher

The TWO NATURE'S of MANKIND (the old and new man).

The nature or constitution of man consist of two different classes of humanity (1) one being, those who are 'in Adam' as unbelievers from birth and the other; (2) those who are 'in Christ' as born again believers deriving from a supernatural rebirth. Scripture also describes those who are 'in Adam' as the 'old man', possessing an inherit nature and sharing the sinful characteristics of Adam from a fallen state (genesis 5:3). In a similar fashion, Scripture also describes those who are 'in Christ' as having obtained a new nature possessing the righteous characteristics of the 'new man' which is found in Christ.

However, there remains an obvious and glaring DIVIDING LINE between the 'old man' and the 'new man' - this dividing line is the Holy Spirit. It is the Holy Spirit either IN MAN or NOT that is the dividing line between the two natures of man; that being IN CHRIST having the Spirit or IN ADAM without the Spirit.

Since the Holy Spirit is the "dividing line" between the two nature's of mankind, let's now look at a few characteristics of both.

For example:

The 'old man', because of his nature can only do what his nature allows him to do; he is indeed confined. The old man or unbeliever can only obey sin and not righteousness (romans 6:12-14, 16-19). Furthermore, the old man only obeys the cravings of the flesh and following it's desires and thoughts because of the power and control of sin in his body (ephesians 2:3). Sin and it's control and power is the 'old mans' Master (romans 6:14). Sin REIGNS in the 'old mans' mortal body therefore making the unbeliever obey it's passions (romans 6:12). The flesh alone serves only the Law of sin (romans 7:25). Man born of the flesh is born sinful by his very nature. We are born with a SINFUL NATURE being that of the 'old man'. And by our very nature from birth, we are considered children/sons of disobedience deserving wrath (ephesians 2:3, galatians 2:15) - and just why is that? Because we are born with a nature that can ONLY and WILL inevitably sin leading to death apart from the initial unilateral saving work and grace of God.

However, in regards to the New Man and his nature, he is not confined to only obey sin and what the flesh desires but he has been freed from the power and enslavement of sin and what the flesh desires and therefore can now freely obey righteousness by the Spirit of God in him.

For example:

The 'new man' because of his new nature is not only free to obey sin but now righteousness as well, a privilege the 'old man' does not share. Wherever the Spirit of the Lord is, there is freedom (2 corinthians 3:17). The 'new man' according to his nature is comprised of those who are to be found 'In Christ'. They are those who have been born again by the Spirit of God. These born again believers or the 'new man' serve or obey God in a new way according to the Spirit and not by the Letter of the Law that is according to the flesh (romans 7:6). Having become slaves of righteousness and set free from sin, the 'new man' has now become obedient from the heart whereas the 'old man' was by nature stubborn and disobedient from the heart (romans 2:5), seeing that he was enslaved to sin according to his nature and can only obey unrighteousness (romans 6:17-19). Lastly, the 'new man' with a new nature who is now enslaved to righteousness having become born again has the power and ability to mortify the deeds of the flesh BY THE SPIRIT; another privilege the "old man" doesn't possess because of his nature being void of the Spirit; this being a distinct difference between the two nature's. The 'new man' shares in Christ Divine nature (2 Peter 1:4) and obviously, the 'old man' does not.

Point being, without sounding redundant - the 'old man' can only obey sin and the 'new man' has been freed from only obeying sin but now righteousness as well. This fact, is due to the difference in the 'old and new mans' nature. The 'old man' can ONLY bear fruit unto death, the 'new man' bears fruit unto God; both bears fruit, be it ACCORDING to their NATURE.

By Aaron Fisher.

Christ, a failure if He died on behalf of everyone without exception? (Jesus death and role as High Priest are necessarily connected).

If Christ died for "everyone without exception" - It would indeed make Him a failure because his intercession as High Priest before and after His death (john 17:1-2, 10-11, romans 8:33-34, hebrews 2:16-18) as it relates to salvation would indeed be found unsuccessful if His death was intended to benefit everyone without exception seeing that everyone will not be saved. But according to Scripture, this is not the case. Christ intercessory work on behalf of His sheep before their salvation (john 17:20-24) and after salvation (romans 8:33-34, hebrews 2:16-18) is an effectual intercessory work on behalf of those given to Him from the Father; not everyone without exception. Everyone that Christ intercedes for will inevitably come to saving faith. Jesus could NEVER lose any of all those He intercedes for; it is an IMPOSSIBILITY (John 6:39). Jesus came down from Heaven to do the will of the Father and He accomplished this task that was given to Him on behalf of the Father's Elect and His very own sheep (john 6:38-39, 17:4, and 19:30). If Jesus died for everyone, that would imply His intercession as High Priest fails for whom it was intended (if all without exception); this is also an impossibility. Jesus does not intercede for those who were not given to Him! 

However, Christ is a High Priest ONLY toward the Children of Abraham (hebrews 2:16-17, john 8:37-47). The Children of Abraham are the Children of Promise and the Children of Promise are God's Elect and God's Elect are the Son's Sheep. Christ prayed BEFORE HIS DEATH on behalf of those given to Him from the Father (john 17:1-2, 10-11) so that AFTER HIS DEATH, those things He prayed for BEFORE HIS DEATH may indeed come to pass seeing that He accomplished all that the Father had given Him to do in regard to the work of redemption on their behalf - IT IS FINISHED.

Seeing that Christ intercessory work as High Priest is an effectual work, it is an impossibility for Him not to fulfill His Father's commission. Christ always does and fulfills the will of the Father. Indeed, the Son will lose none of all that was given to Him but raise them up on the last day. A KEY POINT - Jesus death and role as High Priest are necessarily related and cannot be seperated; He only intercedes for those He died for; therefore, resulting in the inevitable salvation of those who were given to Him - seeing that the Father will always honor the prayers of the Son for the Father ALWAYS hears the Son and the Son ALWAYS does what pleases the Father (john 8:29, john 11:42).

By Aaron Fisher