Babies born sinful according to scripture? What does God's Word actually teach?

 

Scripture states that God sent His Son in the likeness of SINFUL FLESH (romans 8:3). Question. Is this "flesh" spoken of in (romans 8:3) a reference to newly born babies as well? YES! Jesus has declared (john 3:6) that which is born of flesh (same Greek word regarding romans 8:3) is flesh and that which is born of Spirit is Spirit. Therefore, since newborn babies are born to the same "sinful" flesh that Jesus was sent into the world in the likeness of - infants along with every other class of people are born with a sinful nature just the same - for you cannot separate ones nature (innate natural desires) and ones flesh (sinful desires and works of sinful flesh) from one another; the two are inseparable. For example, if ones flesh is sinful; then ones nature is as well. Babies are born in sin; with a sin nature - deserving of God's wrath along with the rest of mankind simply because of their nature alone to which we are all born to. Mere flesh cannot enter the Kingdom of God; one must be born again - including infants if they are indeed to enter into the Kingdom at all. This is why Ephesians 2:3 speaks of the very nature of which man is born to as deserving of God's wrath because we are born sinful or as sinners in spite of having not done any evil deeds as of yet because our default disposition as a sinner when born is considered to be a slave to sin as to only obey unrighteousness. The very nature to which we are born can ONLY bear fruit which leads to death (romans 7:5). Therefore, the only fruit that any human being can bear according to their sinful nature would lead to condemnation apart from becoming born again. Man's very nature alone to which he was born is enough to send that person to the Lake of Fire. Sure, the scriptures state that mankind will be judged according to our works; however if one is not able to bear good fruit from any works according to their sinful nature; regardless of whatever defining characteristic you may put forth or assign to the individual - that person will still be condemned because that person while in his flesh apart from any works could NEVER bear fruit to please God nonetheless because of his nature. The unclean or impure according to sinful flesh to which we are born can't inherit the Kingdom of God; including newborn babies. The "nature" of the sinful baby must be changed in order for that baby to enter the Kingdom - and if the baby's nature must be changed; then prior to the change of that baby's nature; that baby by default could not enter the Kingdom but rather perish as to enter the Lake of Fire along with the rest of wicked sinners.

A FURTHER ARGUMENTATION

There is no condemnation for all those who are "in Christ" - ROMANS 8:1. Therefore, God has the right to judge everyone who is not "in Christ" but are yet still "in Adam" - including babies. Apart from any works; that being good or evil - that baby is still considered to be a sinner (ROMANS 5:19). Newborn babies are born into the world as a "sons of disobedience" (EPHESIANS 2:2) for this is his or her standing or status in the world; as a sinner. Furthermore, scripture declares God has a right to fashion some individuals as vessels of dishonor having been prepared beforehand (before they are born) for destruction; even though ALL OF MANKIND indeed stands condemned already. Consider Esau; his fate was sealed before he was born. If God sealed Esau's fate before he was born; then what's the difference between a baby that's already condemned prior to having been born and the condemnation beforehand for example of an unbelieving elderly individual having been born as well but who lived a long life but who's deeds are still considered evil nonetheless? There is no difference! They both are still considered to be sinners and they both will be condemned as sinners - one having been condemned without works as a sinner (newborn baby) and the other being condemned according to their works as a sinner (elderly individual); and rightfully so. There is no injustice with God; he has the right to fashion each vessel as He sees fit. If a baby is to be condemned; then that baby will be condemned as one who is a sinner without works having not been chosen beforehand prior to it's birth unto salvation. In order for you to argue against my position; then you would have to explain biblically - how is it possible for a baby who is found not to be "in Christ" when born be something other than as to not stand condemned before God as not "in Christ" but still "in Adam" upon their death on judgement day?

By Aaron Fisher 

John 8 (God's Elect, the Children of Promise, and the Reprobate)

Can any of you prove me guilty of sin? If I am telling the truth, why don’t you believe me? Whoever belongs to God hears what God says. The reason you do not hear is that you do not belong to God.” - JOHN 8:46-47

At the onset, Jesus had acknowledged that these particular Jews were physical descendants of Abraham (john 8:37) but he denounced the idea that they were indeed spiritual descendants of Abraham according to faith in God (john 8:39-42) - as in the children of Promise; being those given to Him from the Father. Jesus understood that these particular Jews had been predestined to disobey the word of the Lord and to stumble over the stumbling stone as to perish; seeing that Christ Himself was that very stone - a rock of offense (isaiah 8:13-15, luke 20:17-18, matthew 21:42,1peter 2:6-8, and romans 9:32). This is why he asserted that the slave doesn't remain in the house forever; the son does (john 8:35). The slave or hired hand has no inheritance regarding the household of which he serves; the inheritance of the Father belongs to the natural born son. However, Christ was using this biblical fact to reveal to these Jews that they too were not considered to be sons of God as to have an inheritance because they were not given to Him as heirs according to the promise made to Abraham (genesis 17:7 and galatians 3:29). For it was not granted unto them to believe; this privilege is only reserved for those given to Christ; His sheep. These particular Jews in John 8 did not belong to God nor were among Christ sheep; if they were then they would have believed having been predestined as Children of Promise beforehand (genesis 17:7).

Mind you, Jesus denounced these Jews to be spiritual descendants of Abraham (which would have been demonstrated by their faith) PRIOR TO them actually having believed to indeed confirm the fact that the son of the slave woman (as not belonging to the Abrahamic Covenant) shall not share in the inheritance of the privileged son (child of promise) of the free woman (galatians 4:30) who indeed is of or truly belongs to the Abrahamic Covenant (Genesis 17:7). The son of the slave woman remains in spiritual bondage but the son of the free woman is set free from sin and his final destination is Jerusalem which is above (galatians 4:22-31). The Abrahamic Covenant promises salvation to all who belong to it; a particular group of people of whom God has chosen beforehand (genesis 17:7). God had promised beforehand to Abraham to be God to a particular people who would be forgiven and reconciled back to Him in right standing through His Son Jesus Christ. Therefore, salvation is inevitable for some and not others; for these particular group of people are namely; the Children of Promise who are to be saved. Not everyone is a child of promise; if so, then everyone would ultimately be saved. So, seeing that it is impossible for everyone to be considered a "child of promise" then it's likewise impossible for everyone  as in "all without exception" to ever come to saving faith. Furthermore, it is also impossible for anyone according to their "free will" to believe apart from already having been given to the Son prior to. Free will is not a factor in one's salvation; only the mercy and grace of God that was predetermined only toward the children of promise (romans 4:11-18 and hebrews 6:13-20). This is what is occuring in John 8. These particular Jews would not believe because they were not foreordained to believe. They were not of God's Elect. They were not the children of promise. They were in fact considered to be the reprobate of the Jews; those of whom God has passed over from birth for salvation (romans 9:11,13).

Jesus confirmed that it was impossible for these Jews to ever believe as to be saved; therefore their damnation was certain (romans 9:22). He acknowledged that they did not belong to God; therefore they were not to be counted as the spiritual descendants of Abraham who were promised to Him as heirs; the children of promise. For it is the privileged son who remains in God's house forever; not the child of the slave woman who was passed over as not belonging to the Abrahamic Covenant as to share in the inheritance. John 8 is a clear example as to prove; it is only those given to the Son beforehand that will believe and be saved - while excluding all others. No one can be saved apart from already belonging to the Abrahamic Covenant beforehand - proving that it is an impossibility for everyone as in all without exception to be saved; especially according to the so called "free will" of man. Those who will indeed perish - it is understood that they will have proven themselves to be reprobate.

By Aaron Fisher 

Does "foreknowledge" necessitate Determinism?

Leighton Flowers denies the scriptural argument that the reason why God knows what will occur is because He has predetermined what will occur or that God's foreknowledge of future events is based upon an eternal decree. If the overall purpose of God is fulfilled by the evil intensions of the creature - then how is the creature "free" as to do other than what God has already planned involving the creature as to fulfill His purpose since God's plan precedes His purposes and is the very reason His purposes are fulfilled? How can the creature escape God's decree or predetermined plan that is essential in fulfilling His "good purposes" that Leighton speaks of?

However Sir, in spite of your assertion; the obvious question still remains based upon your logic - if, "God is capable of knowing and using free creatures with sinful intentions to accomplish His good purposes without decreeing their evil intentions" as you claim - then does the "free creature" still have the freedom to do other than what God already knows beforehand what he will do seeing that His "good purposes" involving man derive from a predetermined plan which in return is non-contradictory to what He already knows beforehand? If the entirety of God's plan is determined before creation then everything that occurs proceeding or because of his plan has to be predetermined in order that His purposes according to His plan might be fulfilled.

I'm arguing, If God knew beforehand that the "free will" creature would do X, then what God already knew could never contradict OR not be contingent upon His predetermined plan for the creature to do X - because creature X would be fulfilling the purpose of God in doing X based upon God's eternal plan that had been already established. Therefore what God knew creature X would do beforehand as to fulfill His "good purpose" was based upon an already established predetermined plan. God knows what will occur because He has already predetermined what will occur unless those such as yourself who oppose such an view is prepared to argue that what God knows beforehand as it relates to His purposes being fulfilled somehow is not contingent upon His eternal plan which precedes those very same purposes being fulfilled.

In other words, those who oppose my conclusion must be prepared to argue that what God knows beforehand as it relates to His purposes being fulfilled (that the creature would do X) is not contingent upon His predetermined plan (that the creature would do X) that was before creation in order that His "good purpose" (involving the creature to do X) might be fulfilled - because in doing so they would have illogically and unscripturally established that what God knows beforehand is not contingent upon Him predetermining every occurrence in order to fulfill His "good purposes" BUT rather that somehow God's "good purposes" could come to pass soley based upon the will of the creature and what He already knew APART FROM and not based upon the very thing (His overall predetermined plan) that His purposes essentially derive from.

God plans; and His purposes come to fruition according to His plan - this is my argument. Therefore, His purposes involving man that come to pass are contingent upon what He has already established. It cannot be that the "good purposes" of God to which Leighton speaks of involving man can come to pass apart from the very plan of which His purposes procede and derive from; such a notion would be unbiblical, let alone illogical - for if man was "free" as to have the ability to always do other than what God foreknew what he would do then God's omniscience would be undermined and come into question. However, since man does not possess such an ability - then man can never do other than what God already knew what He would do. Therefore, since man can never do other than what God already knew - man's actions are based upon God's knowledge beforehand which is contingent upon God's decree or predetermined plan. Either way, man cannot escape from the "good purposes" of God in spite of his good or evil intension due to God's foreknowledge which is contingent upon His eternal decree. 

By Aaron Fisher 

Does God Decree Rape? The Rape of Tamar, King David's Daughter (2 Samuel 13).

First, what is the Decree of God? The decree of God - Is not so much as a command but rather a previous determination of God before the Creation of the world of what would come to pass as of certainty resulting from his divine council and will relating to His eternal purposes that will glorify Himself in all things.

Secondly, not to speak lightly of Tamar's rape but the rape was essentially a means to an end - which is the death of Amnon, David's son. You recall, God told David by the Prophet Nathan that the "sword would not depart from his household" as punishment/judgement for David's previous sins. David had slept with another man's wife (Basheba) and killed her husband. The Death of Amnon was because of what God predetermined would come to pass as a result; seeing that Ammon's death was pronounced before the rape as in the "sword should not depart from David's household". The rape of Tamar (as a means to an ultimate end) moved her brother Absalom to murder her other brother Amnon (2 Samuel 13:32) who had sexually violated her. Therefore, the rape of Tamar was decreed (determined beforehand) by God. Her rape DID NOT take God by surprise; it was according to His plan JUST AS the death of Ammon was! Tamar's rape was the means that God had determined to use in order to bring about the death of her brother Ammon for David's sin by the hands of Absalom her other brother.

By Aaron Fisher

I [the Lord] Neither Commanded Nor Did it Enter My Mind (Jeremiah 19:1-5, 32:34-35). What Does the Scriptures Actually Say regarding Judah's CHILD SACRIFICE?

There are some well meaning Christians who are totally against divine determinism and use Scripture passages such as (Jeremiah 19:1-5, 32:34-35) to assert that God does not decree all things, however they sadly misinterpret these text and seemingly ignore the further context of the subject at hand - which is child sacrifice. A careful study will show that God did actually decree/determine for Israel/Judah to eat the flesh of their sons and daughters as punishment for their disobedience; God had given them over to their sinful desires. Some attempt to ascribe the word DECREE among these two passages in question to argue their point that there is no such teaching involving divine determinism that is taught in scripture - but a more accurate interpretation of the Hebrew word [dabar 1696] would preferably be SPEAK IT or MENTION IT; while also considering and not neglecting the ENTIRE context regarding the subject of child sacrifice throughout the rest of the Old Testament scriptures. For the meaning of particular words are always derived by it's context of which it is being used. For example, a more accurate rendering of this particular verse of scripture in question should read as such -  "I did not command it or mention it, nor either did it enter my mind".

The Scripture declares God did not COMMAND the children of Israel nor the sons of Judah NOR did it ENTER GOD'S MIND as a GOOD and HOLY THING of SPIRITUAL SERVICE for His people to offer sacrifices of their children to Himself and especially other god's; this desire was never expressed by God - in fact, it was rightfully FORBIDDEN (Leviticus 18:21, Leviticus 20:1-5, Deuteronomy 12:31,  Deuteronomy 18:9-14, Jeremiah 32:34-35) !!!

Decidedly, God had given his people over to the Customs/Laws of Pagan nations such as (child sacrifice) as punishment for Israel and Judah's PREVIOUS SINS (disobedience as to not keeping the Sabbath holy and having set their eyes on their father's idols) in order that they may ultimately come to the realization that He is indeed a Holy and Just God (Leviticus 26:27-33, Ezekiiel 20:18-26, Deuteronomy 28:53, Jeremiah 19:9, Ezekiel 5:10). God DID NOT EVER "decree" such a thing - such as [child sacrifice] AS GOOD to cause Judah to sin BUT he did give the children of Israel and the sons of Judah over to sinful desires for previous sins to HORRIFY and DEVASTATE them in order that they may know he is the true and living God apart from the other false gods the other nations had imagined in their hearts and worshipped. So in this regard, God DID DECREE the sacrifice of Israel's children as PUNISHMENT for adhering to the sinful customs of the other nations (Ezekiel 20:26; 42-44).

Furthermore, however, I would also argue that God DID ultimately decree and/or predetermine the judicial punishment for Israel and Judah beforehand as it relates to child sacrifice as part of his OVERALL ULTIMATE PLAN for the nation (jeremiah 30 and 31); not only to tear down and destroy because of their sin and disobedience to the Mosaic Covenant (Law of Moses) that was made with them but to also build and plant regarding a future restoration of Israel according to the New Covenant - Deuteronomy 30:1-10, Ezekiel 36:22-38, Hebrews 8:8-12]. In other words, child sacrifice by the people of God was the overall plan of God (Determinism) to bring to pass a specific end goal in order that the remnant of Israel in the latter days may understand the workings of God throughout Israel's history and bring them to faith in the One true God through His Son that they and their ancestors had rejected. This is why the scriptures testify that in the latter days Israel will then understand all that God had done (jeremiah 23:20 and jeremiah 30:24).

SCRIPTURE VERSES AND CONCLUSION TO PROVE MY ARGUMENT.

1) God warned Israel/Judah beforehand about potentially giving their children sacrificially to Molech and sharing in the abominations of the other nations

(A) Any one of the people of Israel or of the strangers who sojourn in Israel who gives any of his children to Molech shall surely be put to death. The people of the land shall stone him with stones. 3I myself will set my face against that man and will cut him off from among his people, because he has given one of his children to Molech, to make my sanctuary unclean and to profane my holy name. 4And if the people of the land do at all close their eyes to that man when he gives one of his children to Molech, and do not put him to death, 5then I will set my face against that man and against his clan and will cut them off from among their people, him and all who follow him in whoring after Molech. - Leviticus 20:1-5

(B) You shall not worship the LORD your God in that way, for every abominable thing that the LORD hates they have done for their gods, for they even burn their sons and their daughters in the fire to their gods. - Deuteronomy 12:31

(C) When you come into the land that the LORD your God is giving you, you shall not learn to follow the abominable practices of those nations. There shall not be found among you anyone who burns his son or his daughter as an offering, anyone who practices divination or tells fortunes or interprets omens, or a sorcerer or a charmer or a medium or a necromancer or one who inquires of the dead, for whoever does these things is an abomination to the LORD. And because of these abominations the LORD your God is driving them out before you. You shall be blameless before the LORD your God, for these nations, which you are about to dispossess, listen to fortune-tellers and to diviners. But as for you, the LORD your God has not allowed you to do this. - Deuteronomy 18:9-14

(D) You shall not give any of your offspring to offer them to Molech, nor shall you profane the name of your God; I am the LORD. - Leviticus 18:21

(E) They set up their abominations in the house that is called by my name, to defile it. They built the high places of Baal in the Valley of the Son of Hinnom, to offer up their sons and daughters to Molech, though I did not command them, nor did it enter into my mind, that they should do this abomination, to cause Judah to sin. - Jeremiah 32:34-35

(2) As discipline, God determined to punish Israel and give them over to their sinful desires for not obeying His rules or keeping the Sabbath Holy. God gave them over to the laws and customs [child sacrifice] of the other nations and deemed it so that they shall eat the flesh of their own sons and daughters.

(A) But if in spite of this you will not listen to me, but walk contrary to me, then I will walk contrary to you in fury, and I myself will [DISCIPLINE YOU] sevenfold for your sins. You shall eat the flesh of your sons, and you shall eat the flesh of your daughters. And I will destroy your high places and cut down your incense altars and cast your dead bodies upon the dead bodies of your idols, and my soul will abhor you. And I will lay your cities waste and will make your sanctuaries desolate, and I will not smell your pleasing aromas. And I myself will devastate the land, so that your enemies who settle in it shall be appalled at it. And I will scatter you among the nations, and I will unsheathe the sword after you, and your land shall be a desolation, and your cities shall be a waste. - Leviticus 26:27-33

(B) And I said to their children in the wilderness, ‘Do not walk in the statutes of your fathers, nor keep their rules, nor defile yourselves with their idols. I am the LORD your God; walk in my statutes, and be careful to obey my rules, and keep my Sabbaths holy that they may be a sign between me and you, that you may know that I am the LORD your God.’ But the children rebelled against me. They did not walk in my statutes and were not careful to obey my rules, by which, if a person does them, he shall live; they profaned my Sabbaths.

“Then I said I would pour out my wrath upon them and spend my anger against them in the wilderness. But I withheld my hand and acted for the sake of my name, that it should not be profaned in the sight of the nations, in whose sight I had brought them out. Moreover, I swore to them in the wilderness that I would scatter them among the nations and disperse them through the countries, because they had not obeyed my rules, but had rejected my statutes and profaned my Sabbaths, and their eyes were set on their fathers’ idols. Moreover, I gave them [over to] statutes [of the heathen nations] that were not good and rules by which they could not have life, and I defiled them through their very gifts in their offering up all their firstborn, that I might devastate them. I did it that they might know that I am the LORD. - Ezekiel 20:18-26

(C) During the siege and hardship that your enemy will impose on you, you will eat the fruit of your womb, the flesh of the sons and daughters whom the LORD your God has given you. - Deuteronomy 28:53

(D) I [the Lord] will [make them] eat the flesh of their sons and daughters, and they will eat one another's flesh in the siege and distress inflicted on them by their enemies who seek their lives. - Jeremiah 19:9

(E) As a result, fathers among you will eat their sons, and sons will eat their fathers. I will [execute judgments against you] and scatter all your remnant to every wind. - Ezekiel 5:10

(3) God gave Israel/Judah over to their sinful hearts because of disobedience in order that He might horrify them with the fear of God.

(A) because they had not obeyed my rules, but had rejected my statutes and profaned my Sabbaths, and their eyes were set on their fathers’ idols. Moreover, I gave them statutes that were not good and rules by which they could not have life, and I defiled them through their very gifts in their offering up all their firstborn, that I might [devastate them]. I did it that they might know that I am the LORD. Ezekiel 20:24-26

(B) And you shall know that I am the LORD, when I bring you into the land of Israel, the country that I swore to give to your fathers. And there you shall remember your ways and all your deeds with which you have defiled yourselves, and you shall loathe yourselves for all the evils that you have committed. And you shall know that I am the LORD, when I deal with you for my name’s sake, not according to your evil ways, nor according to your corrupt deeds, O house of Israel, declares the Lord GOD. - Ezekiel 20:42-44

(4) The overall plan of God for Israel was to eventually fall into grave sin; even apostasy - only to restore them in the latter days; so that they may come to know the true living God by way of all His attributes being revealed. God used Israel's sinful disobedience as a means to this end for His glory.

(A) For I know that after my death ye will utterly corrupt yourselves, and turn aside from the way which I have commanded you; and evil will befall you in the latter days; because ye will do evil in the sight of the LORD, to provoke him to anger through the work of your hands - DEUTERONOMY 29:31:29-30

(B) But to this day the LORD has not given you a heart to understand or eyes to see or ears to hear - DEUTERONOMY 29:4

(C) The anger of the LORD will not turn back until he fully accomplishes the purposes of his heart. In days to come you will understand it clearly - JEREMIAH 23:20

(D) The fierce anger of the LORD will not turn back until he fully accomplishes the purposes of his heart. In days to come you will understand this - JEREMIAH 30:24

(E) When you are in tribulation, and all these things come upon you in the latter days, you will return to the LORD your God and obey his voice. For the LORD your God is a merciful God. He will not leave you or destroy you or forget the covenant with your fathers that he swore to them - DEUTERONOMY 4:30-31

(F) “Behold, the days are coming, declares the LORD, when I will sow the house of Israel and the house of Judah with the seed of man and the seed of beast. And it shall come to pass that as I have watched over them to pluck up and break down, to overthrow, destroy, and bring harm, so I will watch over them to build and to plant, declares the LORD. - Jeremiah 31:27-28

(G) ......... “Behold, the days are coming, declares the Lord, when I will establish a new covenant with the house of Israel and with the house of Judah, not like the covenant that I made with their fathers on the day when I took them by the hand to bring them out of the land of Egypt.

For they did not continue in my covenant, and so I showed no concern for them, declares the Lord. For this is the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel after those days, declares the Lord:

I will put my laws into their minds, and write them on their hearts, and I will be their God, and they shall be my people. And they shall not teach, each one his neighbor and each one his brother, saying, ‘Know the Lord,’ for they shall all know me, from the least of them to the greatest.
For I will be merciful toward their iniquities, and I will remember their sins no more.” - Hebrews 8:8-12

(H) I will no longer hide my face from them [Israel], for I will pour out my Spirit on the people of Israel, declares the Sovereign LORD. - EZEKIEL 39:29

(I) And I will pour out on the house of David and the inhabitants of Jerusalem a spirit of grace and supplication. They will look on me, the one they have pierced, and they will mourn for him as one mourns for an only child, and grieve bitterly for him as one grieves for a firstborn son - ZECHARIAH 12:10

(J) Then I will gather [the remnant] of my flock out of all the countries where I have driven them, and I will bring them back to their fold, and they shall be fruitful and multiply. I will set shepherds over them who will care for them, and they shall fear no more, nor be dismayed, neither shall any be missing, declares the LORD. “Behold, the days are coming, declares the LORD, when I will raise up for David a righteous Branch [JESUS CHRIST], and he shall reign as king and deal wisely, and shall execute justice and righteousness in the land. In his days Judah will be saved, and Israel will dwell securely. And this is the name by which he will be called: ‘The LORD is our righteousness.’ “Therefore, behold, the days are coming, declares the LORD, when they shall no longer say, ‘As the LORD lives who brought up the people of Israel out of the land of Egypt,’ but ‘As the LORD lives who brought up and led the offspring of the house of Israel out of the north country and out of all the countries where he had driven them.’ Then they shall dwell in their own land - JEREMIAH 23:3-8

(K) Thus saith the Lord: As if a grain be found in a cluster, and it be said: Destroy it not, because it is a blessing: so will I do for the sake of my servants, that I may not destroy the whole. And I will bring forth a seed [remnant] out of Jacob, and out of Juda a [possessor of my mountains]: and [my elect] shall inherit it, and my servants shall dwell there - ISAIAH 65:8-9

CONCLUSION:

God did NOT decree that His people would participate in Child Sacrifice as something good regarding spiritual service as to honor Him; in fact, He had forbid such sinful practices beforehand. However, God did ultimately decree beforehand that the punishment for His people sins would be to give them over to depraved mind as to offer their children for sacrifice because they did not keep the Sabbath holy and their idolatry as to worship the false gods of the other nations; seeing that God gave His people fair warning a head of time. God's "decree" was for them to disobey what he had forewarned them about to bring about His plan and a greater purpose although His revealed will was clear to which he warned them beforehand as to not adopt the sinful ways of the Gentile nations. The ultimate end of God's decree as to whether obey or disobey is for His glory!

By Aaron Fisher

UNION WITH CHRIST.

Union with Christ aka "In Christ" -  Is based upon an unbreakable "possession" by the Father of a particular people that has been given to the Son from eternity past (ephesians 1:4) as to glorify Him. It is a union or possession unbreakable due to the fact that the Father has eternally and favorably loved a people as His own (ephesians 1:4-5) before time to the same degree as He has eternally loved His very own Son (john 17:22-23). God's ownership of a people before creation as to set them apart unto Himself for salvation; foreordaining them for redemption and the forgiveness of sins having been created in Christ Jesus and likewise foreordained unto good works is the very result of such an eternal union to which I speak of. Mind you, those who are in union with Christ as belonging to Him are His due to the Father's eternal love and are being kept by God's power and those kept are continuously dependent upon His love, faithfulness and power to remain in union as His.

In addition, God's elect have always been united or in union with Christ; for our union is also based upon belonging to Christ before the foundation of the world in an unbreakable relationship having been given to Him from the Father. There never was a "time" when we did not belong to Christ. Therefore, there never was a 'time' when we were not ultimately in union with Christ. However, as relating to 'time' - we are only momentarily separated from Christ as in a state of unbelief involving the plan of God as to be ultimately saved but this momentary separation does not mean we cease to belong to Him; as in union with Him. We still remain as Christ sheep regarding His relationship with and ownership of us; even in a state of unbelief OR even before our very own physical existence - as in, before creation.

By Aaron Fisher 

N

Blessed "in Christ" before creation with every "spiritual blessing" (ephes 1:3-5).

God blessed us "in Christ" with every spiritual blessing "before the foundation of the world" just as or in the sane manner that He chose us to be holy and blameless before Him which also was "before the foundation of the world". Essentially, God's blessings and His choosing of us were both "in Christ" before creation (vs 3-4). The blessing spoken of in verse 3 are simply for those whom God likewise chose in Christ before the foundation of the world.

(A) Blessed us (vs 3)

(B) In Christ (vs 3)

(C) with every spiritual blessing (vs 3)

(D) Just as or in the same manner to which God chose us in Him to be holy and blameless - before the foundation of the world (vs 4) 

THIS IS WHY:

The Apostle Paul goes on to say; that those whom God both blessed "in Christ" AND chose "in Christ" before the foundation of the world were likewise predestined before the foundation of the world to sonship AS TO receive these spiritual blessings upon having believed seeing that God initially had already blessed us by decree with such blessings "in Christ" before creation - indeed, having blessed us "in the Beloved".

(A) In love He predestined us (vs 5)

(B) According to the purpose of His will & to the praise of His glorious grace (vs 6)

(C) Which He has blessed us "in the beloved" before the foundation of the world (vs 6)

God blessed us with every spiritual blessing in the same manner that He chose us - both having been before the foundation of the world. Before creation is in regards to God's decree. However, God likewise predestined us for adoption to sons as to receive these blessings upon believing; having been already ours before creation to receive. This is why Paul goes on to state that we have redemption through Christ blood and the forgiveness of trespasses because these particular blessings are according to the "riches of His grace" which He "lavished" upon us. God's "lavishing of the richest of His grace" having been before creation is in relation to our redemption and forgiveness of sins "in time" or after creation once having believed.

By Aaron Fisher

God's Eternal Perspective / Chose In Christ, Before The Foundation of the World.

The Apostle Paul said that the Ephesian believers were chose as already "in Christ" before the foundation of the world to be holy and blameless; so their being in Christ wasn't necessarily dependent upon them believing but rather ultimately dependent upon God who chose and predestined them having already been in Christ when He did so - because before the foundation of the world there was an absence of the concept of time; therefore God sees those whom He has chose and predestined as already "in Christ" for He is not bound by time nor a chronological order of events as we are since He is eternal. God can call a people (His Elect) into existence before the foundation of the world by Decree and having been so absolute or certain of their existence; He considered or counted them as already existing even before they actually physically existed (romans 4:17).

God's "eternal perspective" is His divine vantage point being outside of and not bound by time; for He transcends it. This is why He can proclaim that believers are (1) ALREADY seated with Christ in the heavenly places (ephesians 2:6) when we at present are physically not (2) ALREADY glorified (romans 8:30) when we at present are physically not (3) ALREADY raised with Christ (colossians 3:1) when we at present are physically not (4) and were ALREADY in Christ before the foundation of the world when God chose us (ephesians 1:4) because to Him being outside of and not bound by time these things have ALREADY taken place - not literally but certain to come pass. To God, those things that He has decreed before creation to come to pass are just as in the present as if the decree has already come to pass. 

God before creation, calls as of certainty a thing into being "before time" as to exist "in time" - although, certain to exist; as If it has already existed before creation (romans 4:17). Before time was created, what men perceive as reality at present already existed as a thing certain before anything was created to a God who is eternal. So we must realize that when the Apostle Paul claims that God has chose "us" as already in Christ before the foundation of the world while addressing believers regarding EPHESIANS 1:4; he is speaking from a position of eternity past or before time while not beholden to the concept of any chronological order of events as we are. This is why it's hard for us to understand the notion that we were already "in Christ" as an unbeliever or specifically even having not been born as of yet from God's viewpoint. Opponents of this view; accurately taught I trust - either avoid what the text literally says (God chose us in Christ before the foundation of the world) or just simply have a hard to explaining the plain text. At this point, let's consider this verse (ephesians 1:4) in it's converse as to perhaps even make what the Apostle Paul has said even more simplified - "before the foundation of the world God chose us in Christ". Essentially, Paul is arguing - that before the foundation of the world, God chose a particular people (us) who were already in Christ.. Those who disagree with the plain text as the Apostle Paul taught will ultimately have to explain; how is it possible for God to have chose "believers" before creation as most suggest is the correct understanding - when no one was even born before the foundation of the world at the 'time' of God's choosing; let alone at a 'time' when no one physically existed as of yet as well. 

It is my position that God chose specific individuals who were not in existence physically as of yet but as of a certainty according to His eternal decree will exist. When Paul states that God chose US "in Christ" in regards to Ephesians 1:4 - he was was NOT saying that God chose US "to be" in Christ. On the contrary, God's elect have ALWAYS been 'in Christ' from an eternal perspective; since God is not bound by time. And since God is not bound by time; He has the ability to speak whatever into existence as if it already exist for whatever God speaks and predetermines into existence it already exist from God's perspective because of its certainty to come into existence. This is why God can assert that those He has chose before the foundation of the world are ALREADY in Christ; even to the point of those He has chose not having existed as of yet. 

In addition, Paul is stating that God chose US in Christ before the foundation of the world as BELONGING to Christ; even from eternity past. Or, in other words; God chose US in Christ before the foundation of the world as a "union" between His people who did not physically exist as of yet and His Son; albeit as an union CERTAIN to come to fruition "in time" according to His decree which was "before time". What God has decreed before time or creation will inevitably come to pass as a thing undoubtedly certain after creation for those whom He has foreknew and loved beforehand. Christ UNION with the Father's elect has ALWAYS been; there NEVER was a 'time' when the Elect of God or the sheep of Christ did not belong to them both. This possession of a particular people is entirely based upon the decree of God. 

Lastly, we, as the elect of God existed eternally; however only in the mind and plan of God. Before creation; the plan of God was to always create a particular people for Himself that would be carried out over a period of time or after creation. In other words, there was never a "time" when God did not have a particular people in mind to create for His own glory. God chose a people for Himself before the 'concept' of time had been established; hence, God's elect eternally existed. Mind you, the same Greek word (pro 4253) is used as it relates to "before the foundation of the world" relating to both man and the Son of God (ephesians 1:4 and 1 peter 1:20). Even though, however, God's Elect and God's Son both eternally existed - God's Son existed as an uncreated being while God's Elect of course as created beings; there remains a distinction between the two. Furthermore, God foreknew both; His Son and His Elect as eternally existing having been both eternally beloved by the Father in a favorable sense as to glorify Him regarding Christ work of redemption for His people.

By Aaron Fisher 

Middle Knowledge? As in Molinism ..... is simply unbiblical.

     God's decision to create could not be based upon 'middle knowledge' because middle knowledge consist of man having "free will". This notion, is an impossibility seeing that Christ as the Sacrificial Lamb is the central focus point of all that entails and surrounds God's decree. Furthermore, I argue the most essential and main components that would not only carry out (initiate) God's decree but also bring it to fruition and fulfillment - are the eternal Convents of God. The eternal purposes of God are dependent upon these Covenants. These Covenants are not eternal in the same manner as God; being without a beginning or end; but they are eternal in the sense that they are inseperately associated with Christ, the Sacrificial Lamb who was foreknown by the Father before the foundation of the world. The covenants are eternal in so far as Christ is eternal and if the Convents are eternal, then so is God's purposes which derive from God's Covenants.

     So, seeing that God's purposes are eternal and that they are from before creation and no one can thwart God's eternal purposes or plan, then it is also impossibility for man to have "free will". For if this was to be true, then it would be possible for man to indeed thwart the will and purposes of God as it relates to what God has solely or unilaterally determined to fulfill by way of these Covenants.

     What would be the purpose for God having or using Middle Knowledge 'before He decide' to create if there is no 'free wil'l to do other than what God has already purposed to come to pass? Would Middle Knowledge that God supposedly possesses have a purpose if there was no free will?

     What would be the purpose for God using Middle Knowledge 'before He decide' to create if there is actually no other circumstance that man would operate under, to do other than - what God has already determined? Would Middle Knowledge have a purpose if there was no other circumstance that man could operate under other than what God has predetermined?

NO!!!!!

This is why there is no such thing as middle knowledge in the scriptures for middle knowledge would not serve any purpose with God!

I argue,

     Can God know what man would do under other circumstances? Sure He could. But the question is how would He know? I argue God could only know what man would do under different circumstances if He has predetermined what man would do under different circumstances. There is no "free will". What God predetermine man would do, man will indeed do because God's predetermination is based upon His decree which entails His eternal purposes according to the plan of God evolving around His Son, the Sacrificial Lamb - for His Elect whom He promised eternal life to before time. So in light of God having the ability to know what man would do under different circumstances, this notion, that man would do different under different circumstances would not nor could not happen for the purposes and plan of God is unchanging or rather fixed based upon His eternal decree. Middle knowledge is therefore unbilical!

By Aaron Fisher 

The DECREE OF GOD.

The DECREE of God - Is not so much as a command but rather a previous determination of God before the Creation of the world (acknowledging that God is not subject to time but eternal) of what would or rather will come to pass as of a CERTAINTY resulting from his divine councel and will relating to His eternal purposes that will glorify Himself in all things.

The eternal purposes of God are predetermined seeing that they are determined before creation or time. The predetermined purposes of God are based upon a predetermined plan. Both, the eternal purposes and plan of God are on both sides of the same coin; they cannot be separated. Both are DELIBERATE ESSENTIAL commitments of God in reaching the same end goal. Furthermore, they (God's plan and purposes) both come to pass, not only by the desire/intentions of God's heart but more importantly by the will or determination of God which hearkens back to what He has eternally PURPOSED TO FULFILL temporally 'in time' - that being, all that He has pre-planned deriving from His perfect counsel; hence, the Decree of God.

FOREKNOWLEDGE and DECREE

The Decree or the Eternal Purposes of God precedes the future exhaustive knowledge of God for the purposes of God derive from His predetermined plan. To clarify; this plan is NOT based upon what all God knows in advance that will transpire but RATHER based upon His divine counsel in regards to what He has determined before time to come to pass in order to reach a specific end goal for His own glory. For example, if God has based His decree upon what He knows so called 'free creatures' would do in advance - then their "liberty" to do as they will apart from God's meticulous control to govern what He has purposed would indeed rob God of the glory that's due Him alone; for the creature would have become a sovereign unto Himself - seemingly able to thwart the will, eternal purpose, and plan of God, his Creator.

NO PURPOSES OF GOD SHALL BE THWARTED.

The Example: If God has predetermined for Creature A to physically turn left in order to fulfill a specific and necessary purpose but Creature A upon his own volition has the ability to refrain from turning left and do otherwise (and without any outside influence, or coercion including God's power) - then Creature A inevitably also has the freedom and ability to physically turn right instead and essentially undermine the 'will' of God and His purposes. If God has predetermined for Creature A to turn left for His own purposes and glory and His decree does not come to pass because of the 'freewill' of Creature A - then Creature A is his own sovereign unto himself and may very well even boast regarding his liberty as to be a self willed stand alone ruler which in return will ultimately lead to the sin of exalted pride and self glory before his Maker. 

This type of liberty and self glory of the creature cannot be according to Scripture. Even though God has seemingly given man some since of liberty to do as he will; however, man does not live his life according to absolute freedom. Man can only do what God has confined him to, for His very own purposes; God has deemed it so, for He will not give His glory to another. No flesh will have the opportunity to boast before the Lord; God will give no such leeway to sinful creatures for the sake of His holy name. No flesh will glory in His presence!

The LORD nullifies the plan of nations; He frustrates the plans of peoples. The councel of the LORD stands forever, The plans of His heart from generation to generation. - PSALMS 33:10-11

By Aaron Fisher

Possible Worlds? As in Molinism ....

     The teaching of some involving "Possible Worlds" is entirely unbiblical. This concept of "possible worlds" is foreign and not taught in scripture; it is a man made doctrine. The scriptures can't be broken (john 10:35). All that the Prophets and the Psalms spoke of MUST BE fulfilled. There is no other possible world; this world is the only world in the plan of God. Furthermore, there can't be the possibility of a so called another world for God has OBLIGATED HIMSELF to this world and this world alone; based upon His Eternal Covenants. He swore those Covenants with an UNBREAKABLE OATH. This particular world has always been the plan of God BEFORE CREATION. Christ was the Sacrificial Lamb foreknown by the Father before time. God's eternal plan regarding the Son cannot be altered; everything must take place as God has so decreed it - so there is no possibility of a another world that could come to pass. If so, then EVERYTHING that was predetermined to take place according to God's initial one and only decree would be obliterated and God's character and reputation would be in question as to who He truly is. God chose to reveal Himself in this world. God saw fit to only "actuate" this world to glorify Himself. 

     Besides the fact, seeing that God's wisdom, councel, judgements and ways are all perfect; how can there be any possibility of another world that could somehow be better than what is already claimed to be good and absolute (Genesis 1:31)? It's not like, the Triune God - Father, Son, and Holy Spirit were at odds with one another. No, the councel of the Godhead is perfect without any implication of disunity, confusion, or being betwixt and between but with complete clarity, certainty, mastery, preciseness, purposefulness and deliberateness . There is absolutely NO indecisiveness with God. From the beginning, there has been only one plan of God according to His decree before anything was created! Only ONE world!!!!

Molinism is just another attempt at a system to dethrone the sovereignty of God and elevate man's so called 'free will' in regards to his salvation.

By Aaron Fisher

Autonomous Creatures?

    Created creatures cannot be created as truly autonomously free in light of God's decree; His eternal plan and purposes, and not to mention His own glory which also reveals and define the character and nature of God Himself. If the character and nature of God could not be freely fully expressed in light of His complete divine meticulous sovereignty relating to what He has created, then we as human creatures could not ever know, regarding the true scriptural identity of the only self proclaiming living God who has always existed as one but yet three in persons (Yahweh) - and we could never rightfully worship Him as such as He is also properly deserving of our praise; for His true essence and being would be distorted through the lens of all things created by the creature if the scriptural revelation of Himself was denounced and hidden. I ask you, where is the glory of God to be found in such a notion as this? If you take away those things that make God out to be God; for example, such as His eternal decree, then the creatures view of God would not be based upon biblical actuality itself - for God is indeed Holy and sits above's the Heavens but nonetheless simultaneously meticulously governs His creation; those things upon the earth unto His own glory. If this was not the case - the so called "free creature" would be in danger by default as outright stealing or sharing the glory of God which is due to Him alone, hence; His praise according to His divine holiness or separateness. An eternal decree of God prevents such glory and boasting from what has been created; thus God's character is not maligned before man nor His holy name brought to a level of disrespect and ultimately blasphemy.

    In addition, it is an impossibility for God to create "free creatures" for God's glory will never nor could it ever be compromised as to be diminished by those things created because God's exaltation of Himself is both rightly and justly merited as Creator. And because of this truth, God does not lower His Majesty or Splendor for the sake of the creature. God is altogether glorious - "worthy is the Lord our God!" Furthermore, God's Majesty is founded in His attributes and His attributes are part of and consistent with His nature. Therefore, God cannot compromise the Majesty of who He is for the sake of the creature for this very thing would diminish His Being before all things created. Even so, just how could the creature exalt Himself higher than a being who is uncreated, eternal and likewise their maker? Again, this is an impossibility. For example, If man was "free" from God's decree to do otherwise, then he would have a reason to boast before the Lord; he would have become a sovereign (god) unto himself (ezekiel 28:2) possessing an ability to seemingly undo or thwart the will of the eternal God; but there is no other God or Creator besides Yahweh and so God ensures the impossibility of a "free" creature to do other than what God has predetermined leaving absolutely no room for sinful man to boast before Him. Even though God's glory could never actually be diminished in spite of the created being, He only ensures the impossibility of boasting for the sake of His name and I would also argue for the sake of the creature regarding ultimate judgement by establishing before creation an eternal decree distinguishing Himself as the only living and true God. Alone, to God be the glory!

By Aaron Fisher

God is UNABLE for it is IMPOSSIBLE for Him to create Libertarian Free Creatures!

God would not nor neither could He create a "libertarian free" creature. God's nature confines Him to His own holiness or separateness from those things that He has created. And because of this truth, although God may posses the ability to create, He remains unable to create a libertarian free creature; according to His own nature. Otherwise, you would have to ask yourself - who's freedom would ultimately triumph over the other's in regards to carrying out their own intended personal 'will' based upon their desires - the Creator or the creature? 

The mere fact the scriptures emphatically proclaims that God has ordained for Himself predetermined eternal purposes that must come to pass and that no man has the ability to thwart His plan or purpose - is a clear revelation that sinful man's will is undeniably not free. How can you have man with a presumably libertarian free will that is able to do other than what the scriptures say God has already predetermined to come to pass regarding His purposes?  Sinful man CANNOT! In light of this fact, there is no such thing as libertarian free will. Just as God's nature as Deity restricts Him from creating a libertarian free creature because of the eternal purposes He has already preordained to come to pass; likewise, sinful man is also restricted because of His nature as mortal leaving him with the impossibility to ever thwart the plan, purposes, and will of the eternal God! 

Furthermore, God's character, attributes, holiness, glory, majesty are all undermined by creating such creatures as to be so called "free" - these are the very things that set God apart from His creation. In addition, God's decree or His eternal purposes are in direct relation to His nature. As it relates to God's nature, when His attributes are brought fourth and made known; the beauty of His Majesty is then visible. God will not compromise or afford to the creature what solely belongs to God and Him alone; that being, His glory. God's glory is seen by way of revealing His attributes and His attributes are the complete personification of His nature. However, the process to which by God has chose to express His attributes according to His nature is based upon an eternal decree. What God has predetermined beforehand; that is, before creation by way of a decree is carried out "in time" to manifest His character. Therefore, God's nature itself won't allow him to do as such - create a "free" creature. Just as it is impossible for God to lie because of His own nature; His nature, likewise won't allow Him to create a free creature. Or in other words, He is unable to create free creatures because of His nature and as a result God's decree is necessary to substantiate this truth. For example, if God was to lie, then that would undermine His character and Being and all that the scriptures say He is not. So, if it was possible for God to create "free creatures" then this too would undermine His character and Being as well. God's character is in association with His self ascribed glory and His glory is associated with His Majesty or ALL that His Being is. And if these things are compromised because of the "free will" of the creature; then we have not the God of the scriptures.

There cannot be two sovereigns that reside in one sole universe. You won't find in scripture where the creature will ever prevail over the Creators will; no matter how much one might try. God is the only sovereign and by necessity; what He has predetermined before creation to take place after creation will always come to pass in spite of the will of the creature. The creature has no "free will" to do other than what God has already ordained to happen - period. If you deny the God of the scriptures to the point where He cannot fully express or reveal Himself as He sees fit as Sovereign then you end up with a God foreign to that of the scriptures. Even as defined by the scriptures themselves - literally a false God or a god like all others according to the vain imaginations of sinful men hearts. However, and with much praise; thanks be to God - there is only "One True God" who not only won't but is unable to create "free creatures" for the sake of His Being and His holy name. God will not share His glory with another as Creator due to the nature of who He truly is!

IN SHORT:

Since God has determined to reveal Himself to His creation by way of His attributes and His attributes are a complete personification of His nature; then it is impossible for God to create a "free will" creature seeing that His revealing of His attributes "in time" are based upon what He has already pre-determined beforehand to come to pass according to a divine plan; in spite of the actions of man because the fulfilment of His plans are not dependent upon man but soley on God who has promised. If the "free creature" could do other than what God has previously determined; then the creature would have made the God of scriptures out to be a liar. What God has (1) determined beforehand to bring to pass; (2) reveals His attributes; (3) which are the very essence of His nature; and cannot be compromised by the creature - for these three things are inseparable from one another as to rightly identify the ONE and true living God!. If just one of these inseparable distinguishing traits is interrupted or denied simply by the "will" of the creature; then we do not have the God of the Bible but a foreign god that we do not know.

LASTLY AND IN CONCLUSION,

We, students of the Scriptures have the privilege of learning and knowing about God's holy nature because of His attributes that are revealed in scripture. God reveals His attributes based upon what He has predetermined beforehand to occur in order that we may know of His nature in keeping with His eternal purposes. However, God revealing His attributes shows forth His glory. God's decree before creation according to His eternal purposes reveals His character after creation or "in time" that we may truly come to understand and know Him as it relates to what the scriptures asserts as the "depth of the riches and wisdom and knowledge of God" which demonstrates that His judgements are unsearchable and His ways are past finding out. No one has truly known the mind of the Lord nor been His counselor as to have first given to Him anything as to repaid back. ALL things are from Him, by Him and to Him for His glory; to Him be honor and glory forever!

By Aaron Fisher

So that the "world" may believe and know that you have sent me ~ Jesus Christ (John 17:21 and John 17:23)

It seems as though many Christians misunderstand when John says - "so that the world may believe and know that you sent me" regarding JOHN 17:21 and 17:23. They assume that the "world" spoken of is "all inclusive" - as in, including everyone without exception. However, a closer look will disprove such an interpretation. All one has to do is look at the context. Early on, when Jesus says "He's not praying for the world" - He was exclusively praying for the Apostles APART FROM those who will believe through their word (some several verses later). So when Jesus states that - "I do not ask for these (Apostles) only, but also for those will believe in me through their word" - He has NOW included the "WORLD" of all those given to Him; going beyond just the Apostles regarding His prayer (john 17:20). A very crucial and necessary point - So when Jesus states, "so that the world may believe" - He is referencing those who will believe (I do not ask for these only) regarding His prayer which goes beyond just the Apostles. In other words; the very ones Jesus additionally prays for (john 17:20) are of the "world" that has believed that the Father sent the Son. When Jesus mentions the "world" - he is NOT referring to an additional group of people other than for whom Jesus has prayed (john 17:20). NO. The "world" that has believed that the Father sent the Son (vs 21) are the very ones Jesus additionally prayed for (vs 20) having gone beyond just praying for the Apostles early on.

Likewise when Jesus says - "I in them and you in me, that they may become perfectly one, so that the 'world' may know that you sent me and loved them even as you love me" - He is referring to the very same ones He additionally has prayed for (john 17:20) having gone beyond just praying for the Apostles; those given to Him BUT have simply now included the "world" of all those given to Him as well. Mind you, when Jesus prayed soley for the Apostles; He prayed that they may "be one" even as the Son and the Father are one too (17:11). However, now, His prayer has gone beyond the Apostles and into the "world". The same ones Jesus has additionally prayed for (john 17:20) are the very same ones He now prays for that they too may become "perfectly one" along with the Apostles (john 17:23). So that - the "world" (of whom Jesus additionally prayed for, vs 20) may know that you sent me and loved them even as you loved me. The "world" of those who will believe and know that the Father sent the Son is the "world" of those that has been given to Him and that Jesus additionally has prayed for (vs 20), - again, having gone beyond "just" praying for the Apostles. The "world" in question who may believe and know that the Father sent the Son is in reference to those Jesus additionally has prayed for (I do not ask for these only) NOT some additional group of people of the "world" who were NEVER given to the Son nor EVER had the promise of Eternal Life; such an argument is read into the text. Many Christians want to make the "world" spoken of in 17:21 and 17:23 as relating to a group of people other than those given to the Son having the Promise of Eternal Life. However, when Jesus states - "so that the world may believe and know that you sent me; it is always in reference to those given to the Son and have the Promise of Eternal Life. No one outside or beyond this group of people have the possibility of ever obtaining Eternal Life. You must be given to the Son in order to obtain eternal life (john 17:2). Everyone is not given; therefore everyone will not obtain life.

-----------

(1) I am praying for them (the Apostles only). I am not praying for the world (excluding everyone else) but for those whom you have given me for they are yours - VERSE 9

(2) I do not ask for these (the Apostles) only but also for those (of the world) who will believe in me through their (the Apostles) word, that they (those of the world who Christ additionally prays for going beyond just the Apostles, vs 20) may all be one just as you Father are in me and I in you, that they (those of the world who Christ additionally prays for going beyond just the Apostles, vs 20) also may be in us so that the world (not just the Apostles of whom Christ initially prayed for but those of the world whom Christ additionally prayed for, 20) may believe that you sent me - VERSE 20-21

(3) I in them and you in me, that they (those of the world who Christ additionally prays for going beyond just the Apostles, vs 20) may become perfectly one, so that the world (not just the Apostles of whom Christ initially prayed for but those of the world whom Christ additionally prayed for, 20) may know that you sent me and loved them (those of the world who Christ additionally prays for going beyond just the Apostles, vs 20) even as you loved me. Father, I desire that they (not just the Apostles of whom Christ initially prayed for but those of the world whom Christ additionally prayed for, 20) also whom you haven given me (those Christ additionally prayed for, vs 20) may be with me where i am to see my glory that you have given me because you loved me before the foundation of the world - VERSE 23-24

CONCLUSION:

Those of whom Christ additionally prays for (vs 20) are the "world" OR of the "world" that Christ speaks of - "so that the 'world' may believe you sent me. The very ones Christ additionally prays for (vs 20) are the same ones who will believe "of the world" that the Father sent the Son (vs 21,23, and 25); not some additional group of people not spoken of in the text other than those given to the Son (vs 2, 9, 10, 12, and 24). 

By Aaron Fisher 

Christ, the Propitiation for the sins of the "whole" world (1 john 2:2)?

Christ is the Propitiation, not only for our (Jews) sins, but for the sins of the whole world (including) Gentiles; but in particular - all those who were promised Eternal Life before creation/times eternal  1 John 2:2, 2:25, Titus 1:1-2 - God's Elect and the Lord's sheep. This is my premise.

-----------

I won't be exegeting all of 1 John - 5 John but I will examine and point out what is necessary to make my argument. First off, 1st, 2nd, 3rd, 4th, and 5th Chapter of 1st John is a follow up to what John had already wrote regarding the Gospel of John. Secondly, the Book of 1st John is written to CHRISTIANS!!! 

John is reminding the reader (believers) of what he wrote earlier in - the Gospel of John (Chapter 1 - 21). He had stated specifically why he wrote these five chapters - "so that you MAY KNOW you have eternal life" 1 John 5:13. Throughout these five chapters, John was challenging them as new believers to do what is right as newly born again children of God. He exhorted them to love and obey; but if anyone sinned - God was faithful to forgive sin upon confession of sin (1 John 1:8-10). John showed that if anyone continued to sin then they were really not born again after all. He made a distinction between the children of the devil and the children of God (1 John 3:10). John goes on to encourage the believers to 'love one another'. John also Warned them not to be like Cain, who belonged to the evil one and murdered his brother - letting them know if anyone hates his brethren is a murderer at heart. But rather we should willing to lay down our lives for one another by following Christ example toward us (1 John 3:11-24). John continued to challenge the believers to "test the Spirits, to see if they're from God." There are some denying that the Son came in the flesh; which is - the spirit of the antichrist (1 John 4:1-3). Lastly, John ends with stating "everyone who believes that Jesus is the Christ is born of God, and everyone who loves the Father loves everyone born of Him (5 John 1:1). This is how we know we love the children of God by obeying out his commands.

With all that said, I have demonstrated that 1 John was WRITTEN TO CHRISTIANS. So, when John states in 1 John 2:2 that "Christ is the propitiation for OUR sins, and NOT for OURS ONLY but ALSO for the SINS OF THE WHOLE WORLD - the "whole world" is best interpreted "the whole world, consisting of Jew and Gentile" - see John 11:45-52. Those who determine to interpret the "whole world" as ALL PEOPLE without exception has gravely mishandled the text and not understood John's intent. Not only is the "whole world" is in reference to Jew and Gentile but it is ALSO in reference to believers and/or all those who WILL BELIEVE; Jew and Gentile But IN PARTICULAR, Christ Sheep - those who were PROMISED ETERNAL LIFE (1 John 2:25, 5:11). In other words, Christ is the propitiation for all those who HAVE BELIEVED and all those who WOULD BELIEVE and THESE ARE Christ Sheep - those who BELONG to Him and have ALWAYS BELONGED to Him from eternity past (ephesians 1:4, 1 Peter 1:20, 2:24-25). 1 John 4:10 states " In this is love, not that we have loved God but that he LOVED US and SENT HIS SON [into the world] to be the propitiation for OUR [sheep] sins. FURTHERMORE, 1 John 3:16 states "By this we know love, that He [Christ] laid down His life FOR US [sheep], and we ought to lay down our lives for the brothers".

The conclusion regarding these passages of Scripture and the surrounding CONTEXT of 1 John 2:2 is:

(1) The "whole world" is best interpreted "Jew and Gentile" - John 11:45-52.
(2) The "whole world" regarding this letter is in reference to believers; all those who have believed but also all those who will believe - 5 John 1:1, 1 John 2:25, 5:11
(3) All those who will believe are explicitly Christ Sheep - 1 John 2:25, 5:11, John 10:26
(4) Christ is the Propitiation for all those who were Promised Eternal Life ONLY - 1 John 2:25, 5:11, 1 John 4:10, John 10:27-28
(5) God sent His Son into the world to SPECIFICALLY save His Sheep - 1 John 4:10
(6) Christ laid down His life SPECIFICALLY for His OWN Sheep - 1 John 3:16
(7) ONLY Christ sheep WILL believe EXCLUDING all others - 1 John 3:10, John 8:43-47, John 10:26

I used several passages of Scripture in 1 John as supporting examples among many to show that the Atonement of Christ is EXPLICITLY said to be for ONLY God's Elect/Sheep. In doing so, I maintain that Christ DID NOT enter the world to make Salvation MERELY POSSIBLE for all men WITHOUT EXCEPTION but rather Christ came to redeem a PARTICULAR PEOPLE to HIMSELF. This is the biblical testimony of Scripture.

By Aaron Fisher

The GRACE of God has appeared to ALL men (Titus 2:11)?

God Offers Salvation To All People (Titus 2:11)?

Who is the "all people" Paul is referencing to in Titus 2:11? Well, those whom he has already identified in the previous verses; the different people groups that has claimed Jesus Christ as their God and Savior (vs 10).

Older Men (vs 2)
Older Women (vs 3)
Young Women/Wives (vs 4 &5)
Bondservants (vs 9)
Our Savior (vs 10)
Bringing Salvation to all believers (vs 11)
Training Us (vs 12)

Titus teaching is to train these believers (vs 1 and 12) to renounce ungodliness. This verse is NOT teaching that the Grace of God has appeared to all men without exception but to those who are already saved or being saved - and in particular, the Elect of God who had already been promised eternal life before time or creation (1 timothy 1:1-2); therefore, the Grace of God will only appear ultimately to God's Elect, not everyone without exception because everyone without exception has not been promised eternal life.

The "all" (vs11) is the "us" (vs12) and the "us" are believers (vs13-14). However, these believers, Paul has classified into categories.

Older Men (vs 2)
Older Women (vs 3)
Young Women/Wives (vs 4 &5)
Bondservants (vs 9)

So, the 'grace' that has appeared to "all men" that brings salvation is a grace regarding Titus teaching to which he was entrusted by the Apostle Paul (vs1) enabling those different categories of believers being trained to renounce ungodliness .... within their specific role as a Christian whether it be older men, older women, bondservants, ect ......

The same grace that has appeared to "all" that brings salvation; is the same grace that is training the "all" - and just who is it that this grace is "training" that has brought salvation to? Older men, Older women, Younger woman, Bondservants, ect ......

In context, this is the "all men" that the Grace of God has appeared to. The same grace that has appeared, is the same grace that trains; but only toward a classified group of believers who are ultimately the Elect.

In addition, the "grace of God that brings salvation to all people" is not in reference to initial salvation as to be born again for those whom Paul was addressing were already saved but the salvation that's being addressed in verse 11 is in reference to the "the appearing of the glory of our great God and Savior Jesus Christ". This salvation is considered to be related to the believers glorification at Christ appearing.

ÇONTEXT ALWAYS MATTERS!

By Aaron Fisher

Saving Grace is a Unique and Particular Grace that's not granted to all men but Only a select few; God's Elect (Ephesians 2:4-10).

SAVING GRACE is a particular grace that's not granted to all men but only a chosen few whom God has predetermined to unmeritly favor in regards to their salvation. This grace is distinct from all other graces bestowed by God seeing that only a select group can benefit from this unique grace. We see this confirmation of such grace particularly in Ephesians Chapter 1 and 2. The saving grace the Apostle Paul speaks of (ephesians 2:4-10) is in conjunction with Gods choosing and predestining before the foundation of the world a particular people as adopted sons to be holy and blameless (ephesians 1:4-5). Therefore, this particular grace rules out the "rest of mankind" (eph.1:3) or "sons of disobedience" whom God has left to remain in their sins being still deserving of wrath (ephesians 5:5-12) from ever benefitting from such grace.

In order for the "rest of mankind" or the "sons of disobedience" that God has passed over as to remain in their sins to benefit from this unique and particular saving grace - then they too must have been chosen in Christ and predestined as well before the foundation of the world to partake of any and such spiritual blessing (ephesians 1:3). Furthermore, those of whom God neither chose or predestined before creation also would have to been among those for whom Jesus had died for (ephesians 5:1-2) in order for them to be redeemed by His blood and their sins forgiven (ephesians 1:7) of which they were not. To argue otherwise, would be to undermine the love of God for a specific people unto His own glory and to assert or demand that God must love everyone as in all without exception in the very same manner for He only "in love" predestined before the foundation of the world those whom He foreknew; a particular people for His own glory while passing over the rest. Furthermore, to also argue against God having chose and predestined a select people unto salvation would call into question His wisdom, counsel, and judgement as if they are somehow flawed or misguided and not considered perfect in and of themselves seeing that God is perfect in all His ways as Paul goes on to rightly proclaim (ephesians 1:8-10). The grace or favor of God is only extended towards a select few of whom He has both foreknew and foreloved.

By Aaron Fisher

..... That men should "seek God" and perhaps feel their way toward him and find him (acts 17:26-27)?

Are the Scriptures contradicting itself? How can Paul say that men would seek God (acts 17:27) while at the same time say there is none who seeks after God (romans 3:11)?

In regards to Acts 17, the reason Paul now mentions men perhaps seeking God as to find Him is because of past ignorance of who the one true God is but their ignorance as stated in the scriptures no longer remains (acts 17:30) since Christ appointed as judge by the Father has now been raised from the dead - so now all men are without excuse as to who the one true God is as Paul was attempting to explain to those in Anthens. And because of Christ resurrection as judge, it is now, that all men everywhere is commanded to repent because of this fact for judgement is certain to come. The seeking of God (vs 17) is in conjunction with all men now being  commanded to repent (vs 30) because their remains no more ignorance regarding the one true God since Christ has now been raised as proof from the dead to be judge over all mankind. However, those who will have indeed repented, will have done so by seeking God by the Spirit that is working in them. This is why Paul can say in Romans 3:11 without it being a contradiction of scripture that there are none who seek God because those who do not possess the ability or desire by the Spirit to repent will never seek God but remain stubborn of heart in there sin and evil doing in opposition to God. The scripture does not contradict itself regarding Acts 17:26-28 and Romans 3:11. The scriptures are not saying on one hand there is none that seeks after God (romans 3:11) and on the other hand they're are some who do (acts 17:27). In order for one to have the desire to obey and repent that person's heart must be changed (romans 2:5 & 29). It is the person with a new heart that seeks God and will inevitably repent and believe. It is only a new regenerated heart that has attained godly desires as to obey and repent; not the old stubborn uncircumcised heart bent toward evil and evil desires. The Spirit is at work within a person PRIOR to them repenting and believing for it is the Spirit alone that convicts of sin and gives understanding to what God has spoken. No one will ever repent and believe if they are not convicted of sin nor have understanding of what God has required of them FIRST by the Spirit (john 8:43 & 47, john 6:60 & 63).

In addition, prior to Christ being raised from the dead, God overlooked men's ignorance regarding who the one true God is.  But it's not as though sinful man was not seeking God prior to Christ resurrection; however, now that the Father has given proof that there will be judgement concerning man's sin by raising His Son appointed as Judge from the dead - men are now without excuse as to be ignorant of the one true God who does not live in temples or is in need of anything as those in Anthens did. And now that there remains no more ignorance regarding who the One true God is - in sinful mans attempt to seek God as it was in Anthens; all men are commanded to repent of their sins because the true God has fixed a day of judgement for all men. The seeking of God Paul is referring to after Christ resurrection is in conjunction with sinful man's understanding of truth, acknowledgement of his sin, and genuine repentance according to God's command. This "seeking of God" is impossible without the Spirit's work beforehand giving one the desire to seek and the ability to understand and repent. Men indeed sought out God but it was done in ignorance. Sinful man did not nor neither can he understand because of his enslavement to the power and control of sin (romans 3:9) and.also stubborn darkened heart. Therefore, no man will ever seek God apart from the Spirit's initial internal work upon the sinful man's heart.

By Aaron Fisher