Christ "tasted death" for everyone? What does the Scriptures actually say?

One of the most popular verse of Scripture used by those attempting to justify an unlimited atonement is Hebrews 2:9

But we see him [Christ] who for a little while was made lower than the angels, namely Jesus, crowned with glory and honor because of the suffering of death, so that by the grace of God he might taste death for everyone.

But those who attempt to use this verse to justify such a position has gravely misinterpreted the writers thoughts and intentions pertaining to this particular verse by destroying the context to which it is being applied. There needs to be initially a careful study of the entire book of Hebrews in order for one to rightly divide it's worded contents and author's intentions as to what he is trying to specifically convey.

In my study, why "tasting death" for everyone is NOT a reference to "all people" without exception in Hebrews 2:9 but rather "all people" for whom Jesus suffered death for (Hebrews 2:9-13); even unto the Cross. Contextually, according to the Book of Hebrews; this would be - (1) many sons *2:10* (2) all those given to the son from the Father *2:13* (3) Christ brothers *2:12* (4) offspring of Abraham *2:16* (5) heirs of promise *6:17* (6) eternal source of Salvation for all those who obey Him *5:9* (7) those who draw near to God *7:25* (8) those who are called *9:15* (9) those whom Jesus made propitiation for their sins *2:17* (10) Christ sheep *13:20* and (11) those whom God would forgive according to the promise of the New Covenant *8:6-13*. Christ "tasted death" for a specific group of people!

If Jesus "tasted death" for everyone without exception then He is everyone's Interceding High Priest for Christ obedience, even unto His death on the Cross, exalted him to this position of highest honor and crowned with glory - that being of an Eternal High Priest according to Hebrews 2:9-18.

And if Christ "tasted death" for everyone then He is presumably also their Eternal High Priest - and as a result "everyone" would be saved for it was through His suffering, that Christ would not only be made the founder of their Salvation (those whom He tasted death for) but as an Eternal High Priest, their Salvation would be unmistakably effectual and inevitable; because, according to Scripture, Christ as High Priest is a High Priest of the NEW COVENANT(after the order of Melchizedek). The New Covenant is an Unconditional Covenant. This Covenant was unconditional in the sense that it was SOLEY based upon what God would UNILATERALLY do and fulfill or bring to pass and NOT according to ANYTHING that man would do or contribute to. The New Covenant and the fulfilment of it is NOT based upon man's performance and/or obedience! God PROMISED and took it upon Himself to provide a means for sinful man to be made right with God. What man COULD NOT do for himself - in particular, obey what God would command him to do; God would soley do, by replacing the 'old stubborn heart of stone' with a 'new compliant heart of flesh' ACCORDING TO the PROMISE of the New Covenant! The New Covenant also "unconditionally" provided for "forgiveness of sins."  This is why when Hebrews speaks of Christ atonement/propitiation (Hebrews 2:17, 8:10-12, 10:15-17), it is a REMOVAL of GOD'S WRATH UNCONDITIONALLY in spite of what sinful man does or to be more specific - in spite of what sins God's Elect will commit. God ultimately passes over the sins of His Chosen Ones! God NEVER intends to bestow His wrath of judgement upon those whom He has foreloved and promised Eternal Life to before creation. The removal of God's wrath is the means for forgiveness of sins provided for by the promise of the New Covenant.

So, if Jesus "tasted death" on the Cross for everyone then everyone would be saved for Jesus death exalted him to the position of an Eternal High Priest and as High Priest; His intercessory work is by necessity EFFECTUAL seeing that Christ is both Shepherd of His Sheep AND High Priest of the very SAME sheep - meaning that, ALL who Christ intercedes for will INEVITABLY come to a saving faith (John 17, Hebrews 2:10-12 & 17, 5:1-10, 9:11-15)!

However, the Scriptures DO NOT speak of a potential"universal atonement" based upon man's "free will". On the contrary, Christ "tasted death" for all those whom He would suffer death for. He suffered for those whom He would ultimately intercede for as High Priest. And as an Eternal High Priest, Christ intercessory work is EFFECTUAL for all those given to Him from the Father. All those given to Christ from the Father, are those for whom propitiation is made. Heirs according to promise are the Children of Promise, and the Children of Promise are the Elect/Sheep; a particular called out group of people chosen before the creation of the world. Christ, according to the New Covenant, is the Shepherd of the Sheep but ALSO the Eternal High Priest of the SAME New Covenant EFFECTUALLY bringing many "sons and brothers" to glory of those that the Father has given Him from eternity past!

Conclusion: In short, Christ tasted death for everyone whom He suffered death for; and those whom He suffered death for (Hebrews 2:14,16,17, 9:15) are (1) The Father's children given to Christ, (2) offspring of Abraham (3) Christ brethren, who are also the spiritual offspring of Abraham, (4) and those CALLED to be Heirs of Promise.

HEBREWS 2:9-13 - CONTEXT MATTERS!

But we see him who for a little while was made lower than the angels, namely Jesus, crowned with glory and honor because of the SUFFERING OF DEATH, so that by the grace of God he might TASTE DEATH FOR EVERYONE.

For it was fitting that he, for whom and by whom all things exist, in BRINGING MANY SONS TO GLORY, should make the FOUNDER OF THEIR SALVATION PERFECT THROUGH SUFFERING.For he who sanctifies and those who are sanctified all have one source. That is why he is NOT ASHAMED TO CALL THEM BROTHERS, saying,

“I will TELL OF YOUR NAME TO MY BROTHERS;

in the midst of the congregation I will sing your praise.”

And again, “I will put my trust in him.”

And again, “Behold, I and the CHILDREN GOD HAS GIVEN ME.”

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1) The SUFFERING unto DEATH in verse 9 is in connection to Christ tasting death for EVERYONE

2) The same SUFFERING in verse 10 is in connection to Christ and His sufferings attributed to the MANY SONS on their behalf and Him being the founder of their (MANY SONS) salvation.

3) Christ is NOT ASHAMED to call them (MANY SONS) BROTHERS

4) Christ BROTHERS and the Father's MANY SONS are one and the same people; therefore, those whom Christ is not ashamed of and those whom He SUFFERED DEATH for are also the SAME ONES He TASTED DEATH for (verse 9 & 10).

5) Christ TASTED DEATH for the Father's MANY SONS and His BROTHERS!

6) Christ BROTHERS are those GIVEN TO HIM from the FATHER (verse 13)

7) Christ COULD NOT have possibly tasted death for EVERYONE without exception for He suffered death ONLY for the MANY SONS who are Christ BROTHERS (verse 10). And if Christ suffered death only for the MANY SONS who are His BROTHERS then He also TASTED DEATH - ONLY for the MANY SONS and His BROTHER'S. If Christ BROTHERS were given to Him from the Father; then How could Christ taste death for everyone and at the same time suffer death ONLY for His BROTHERS; who were given to Him by the Father? Unless you're prepared to argue that everyone without exception is given to Christ from the Father then you have no sound exegetical argument and have definitely misinterpreted the text. Christ cannot suffer death for an exclusive group of people and at the same time taste death inclusively for everyone; for Christ tasting of death and His suffering of death are synonymous - He tasted death by way of His suffering of death.

8) Christ DID NOT taste death for everyone without exception but ONLY for those given to Him from the Father

IGNORE CONTEXT and MISUNDERSTAND THE TEXT!

In short, the writer of Hebrews qualifies the "everyone" whom Christ tasted death for - and it is the Children of God the Father given to the Son; NOT "everyone" without exception! Christ tasted death for everyone of all that was given to Him by the Father! Let's us continually strive to keep Scripture in it's proper context to avoid falling into doctrinal error by rightfully dividing the Word of God!

By Aaron Fisher..

Does "foreknowledge" necessitate Determinism?

Leighton Flowers denies the scriptural argument that the reason why God knows what will occur is because He has predetermined what will occur or that God's foreknowledge of future events is based upon an eternal decree. If the overall purpose of God is fulfilled by the evil intensions of the creature - then how is the creature "free" as to do other than what God has already planned involving the creature as to fulfill His purpose since God's plan precedes His purposes and is the very reason His purposes are fulfilled? How can the creature escape God's decree or predetermined plan that is essential in fulfilling His "good purposes" that Leighton speaks of?

However Sir, in spite of your assertion; the obvious question still remains based upon your logic - if, "God is capable of knowing and using free creatures with sinful intentions to accomplish His good purposes without decreeing their evil intentions" as you claim - then does the "free creature" still have the freedom to do other than what God already knows beforehand what he will do seeing that His "good purposes" involving man derive from a predetermined plan which in return is non-contradictory to what He already knows beforehand? If the entirety of God's plan is determined before creation then everything that occurs proceeding or because of his plan has to be predetermined in order that His purposes according to His plan might be fulfilled.

I'm arguing, If God knew beforehand that the "free will" creature would do X, then what God already knew could never contradict OR not be contingent upon His predetermined plan for the creature to do X - because creature X would be fulfilling the purpose of God in doing X based upon God's eternal plan that had been already established. Therefore what God knew creature X would do beforehand as to fulfill His "good purpose" was based upon an already established predetermined plan. God knows what will occur because He has already predetermined what will occur unless those such as yourself who oppose such an view is prepared to argue that what God knows beforehand as it relates to His purposes being fulfilled somehow is not contingent upon His eternal plan which precedes those very same purposes being fulfilled.

In other words, those who oppose my conclusion must be prepared to argue that what God knows beforehand as it relates to His purposes being fulfilled (that the creature would do X) is not contingent upon His predetermined plan (that the creature would do X) that was before creation in order that His "good purpose" (involving the creature to do X) might be fulfilled - because in doing so they would have illogically and unscripturally established that what God knows beforehand is not contingent upon Him predetermining every occurrence in order to fulfill His "good purposes" BUT rather that somehow God's "good purposes" could come to pass soley based upon the will of the creature and what He already knew APART FROM and not based upon the very thing (His overall predetermined plan) that His purposes essentially derive from.

God plans; and His purposes come to fruition according to His plan - this is my argument. Therefore, His purposes involving man that come to pass are contingent upon what He has already established. It cannot be that the "good purposes" of God to which Leighton speaks of involving man can come to pass apart from the very plan of which His purposes procede and derive from; such a notion would be unbiblical, let alone illogical - for if man was "free" as to have the ability to always do other than what God foreknew what he would do then God's omniscience would be undermined and come into question. However, since man does not possess such an ability - then man can never do other than what God already knew what He would do. Therefore, since man can never do other than what God already knew - man's actions are based upon God's knowledge beforehand which is contingent upon God's decree or predetermined plan. Either way, man cannot escape from the "good purposes" of God in spite of his good or evil intension due to God's foreknowledge which is contingent upon His eternal decree. 

By Aaron Fisher 

UNION WITH CHRIST.

Union with Christ aka "In Christ" -  Is based upon an unbreakable "possession" by the Father of a particular people that has been given to the Son from eternity past (ephesians 1:4) as to glorify Him. It is a union or possession unbreakable due to the fact that the Father has eternally and favorably loved a people as His own (ephesians 1:4-5) before time to the same degree as He has eternally loved His very own Son (john 17:22-23). God's ownership of a people before creation as to set them apart unto Himself for salvation; foreordaining them for redemption and the forgiveness of sins having been created in Christ Jesus and likewise foreordained unto good works is the very result of such an eternal union to which I speak of. Mind you, those who are in union with Christ as belonging to Him are His due to the Father's eternal love and are being kept by God's power and those kept are continuously dependent upon His love, faithfulness and power to remain in union as His.

In addition, God's elect have always been united or in union with Christ; for our union is also based upon belonging to Christ before the foundation of the world in an unbreakable relationship having been given to Him from the Father. There never was a "time" when we did not belong to Christ. Therefore, there never was a 'time' when we were not ultimately in union with Christ. However, as relating to 'time' - we are only momentarily separated from Christ as in a state of unbelief involving the plan of God as to be ultimately saved but this momentary separation does not mean we cease to belong to Him; as in union with Him. We still remain as Christ sheep regarding His relationship with and ownership of us; even in a state of unbelief OR even before our very own physical existence - as in, before creation.

By Aaron Fisher 

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What Does "In Christ" Scripturally Means?

In short - In Christ, is essentially union with Christ based upon the giving of a particular people to the Son; whom the Father both foreknew and foreloved before time or before creation. The term "In Christ", is not limited to having believed relating to time or the temporal but rather a sense of belonging to or a possession of a people; who in return has been set apart for salvation to the praise and glory of God from eternity past.

In addition, when scripture speaks of sheep belonging to Christ even while they are in a state of unbelief (john 6:39-40, john 10:16, and 1 peter 2:25) they nonetheless are still in union with Christ for they belong to Him as sheep who will eventually hear the voice of their Shepherd as to be saved. In fact, this union has been revealed to have existed before the foundation of the world. This is why when Paul states that God chose "us" in Christ before creation (ephesians 1:4); we essentially had already been given to Christ from the Father; prior to the foundation of the world. In other words, we already belonged to Christ; as being "in Christ" - even from eternity past.

By Aaron Fisher

God's Eternal Perspective / Chose In Christ, Before The Foundation of the World.

The Apostle Paul said that the Ephesian believers were chose as already "in Christ" before the foundation of the world to be holy and blameless; so their being in Christ wasn't necessarily dependent upon them believing but rather ultimately dependent upon God who chose and predestined them having already been in Christ when He did so - because before the foundation of the world there was an absence of the concept of time; therefore God sees those whom He has chose and predestined as already "in Christ" for He is not bound by time nor a chronological order of events as we are since He is eternal. God can call a people (His Elect) into existence before the foundation of the world by Decree and having been so absolute or certain of their existence; He considered or counted them as already existing even before they actually physically existed (romans 4:17).

God's "eternal perspective" is His divine vantage point being outside of and not bound by time; for He transcends it. This is why He can proclaim that believers are (1) ALREADY seated with Christ in the heavenly places (ephesians 2:6) when we at present are physically not (2) ALREADY glorified (romans 8:30) when we at present are physically not (3) ALREADY raised with Christ (colossians 3:1) when we at present are physically not (4) and were ALREADY in Christ before the foundation of the world when God chose us (ephesians 1:4) because to Him being outside of and not bound by time these things have ALREADY taken place - not literally but certain to come pass. To God, those things that He has decreed before creation to come to pass are just as in the present as if the decree has already come to pass. 

God before creation, calls as of certainty a thing into being "before time" as to exist "in time" - although, certain to exist; as If it has already existed before creation (romans 4:17). Before time was created, what men perceive as reality at present already existed as a thing certain before anything was created to a God who is eternal. So we must realize that when the Apostle Paul claims that God has chose "us" as already in Christ before the foundation of the world while addressing believers regarding EPHESIANS 1:4; he is speaking from a position of eternity past or before time while not beholden to the concept of any chronological order of events as we are. This is why it's hard for us to understand the notion that we were already "in Christ" as an unbeliever or specifically even having not been born as of yet from God's viewpoint. Opponents of this view; accurately taught I trust - either avoid what the text literally says (God chose us in Christ before the foundation of the world) or just simply have a hard to explaining the plain text. At this point, let's consider this verse (ephesians 1:4) in it's converse as to perhaps even make what the Apostle Paul has said even more simplified - "before the foundation of the world God chose us in Christ". Essentially, Paul is arguing - that before the foundation of the world, God chose a particular people (us) who were already in Christ.. Those who disagree with the plain text as the Apostle Paul taught will ultimately have to explain; how is it possible for God to have chose "believers" before creation as most suggest is the correct understanding - when no one was even born before the foundation of the world at the 'time' of God's choosing; let alone at a 'time' when no one physically existed as of yet as well. 

It is my position that God chose specific individuals who were not in existence physically as of yet but as of a certainty according to His eternal decree will exist. When Paul states that God chose US "in Christ" in regards to Ephesians 1:4 - he was was NOT saying that God chose US "to be" in Christ. On the contrary, God's elect have ALWAYS been 'in Christ' from an eternal perspective; since God is not bound by time. And since God is not bound by time; He has the ability to speak whatever into existence as if it already exist for whatever God speaks and predetermines into existence it already exist from God's perspective because of its certainty to come into existence. This is why God can assert that those He has chose before the foundation of the world are ALREADY in Christ; even to the point of those He has chose not having existed as of yet. 

In addition, Paul is stating that God chose US in Christ before the foundation of the world as BELONGING to Christ; even from eternity past. Or, in other words; God chose US in Christ before the foundation of the world as a "union" between His people who did not physically exist as of yet and His Son; albeit as an union CERTAIN to come to fruition "in time" according to His decree which was "before time". What God has decreed before time or creation will inevitably come to pass as a thing undoubtedly certain after creation for those whom He has foreknew and loved beforehand. Christ UNION with the Father's elect has ALWAYS been; there NEVER was a 'time' when the Elect of God or the sheep of Christ did not belong to them both. This possession of a particular people is entirely based upon the decree of God. 

Lastly, we, as the elect of God existed eternally; however only in the mind and plan of God. Before creation; the plan of God was to always create a particular people for Himself that would be carried out over a period of time or after creation. In other words, there was never a "time" when God did not have a particular people in mind to create for His own glory. God chose a people for Himself before the 'concept' of time had been established; hence, God's elect eternally existed. Mind you, the same Greek word (pro 4253) is used as it relates to "before the foundation of the world" relating to both man and the Son of God (ephesians 1:4 and 1 peter 1:20). Even though, however, God's Elect and God's Son both eternally existed - God's Son existed as an uncreated being while God's Elect of course as created beings; there remains a distinction between the two. Furthermore, God foreknew both; His Son and His Elect as eternally existing having been both eternally beloved by the Father in a favorable sense as to glorify Him regarding Christ work of redemption for His people.

By Aaron Fisher 

The DECREE OF GOD.

The DECREE of God - Is not so much as a command but rather a previous determination of God before the Creation of the world (acknowledging that God is not subject to time but eternal) of what would or rather will come to pass as of a CERTAINTY resulting from his divine councel and will relating to His eternal purposes that will glorify Himself in all things.

The eternal purposes of God are predetermined seeing that they are determined before creation or time. The predetermined purposes of God are based upon a predetermined plan. Both, the eternal purposes and plan of God are on both sides of the same coin; they cannot be separated. Both are DELIBERATE ESSENTIAL commitments of God in reaching the same end goal. Furthermore, they (God's plan and purposes) both come to pass, not only by the desire/intentions of God's heart but more importantly by the will or determination of God which hearkens back to what He has eternally PURPOSED TO FULFILL temporally 'in time' - that being, all that He has pre-planned deriving from His perfect counsel; hence, the Decree of God.

FOREKNOWLEDGE and DECREE

The Decree or the Eternal Purposes of God precedes the future exhaustive knowledge of God for the purposes of God derive from His predetermined plan. To clarify; this plan is NOT based upon what all God knows in advance that will transpire but RATHER based upon His divine counsel in regards to what He has determined before time to come to pass in order to reach a specific end goal for His own glory. For example, if God has based His decree upon what He knows so called 'free creatures' would do in advance - then their "liberty" to do as they will apart from God's meticulous control to govern what He has purposed would indeed rob God of the glory that's due Him alone; for the creature would have become a sovereign unto Himself - seemingly able to thwart the will, eternal purpose, and plan of God, his Creator.

NO PURPOSES OF GOD SHALL BE THWARTED.

The Example: If God has predetermined for Creature A to physically turn left in order to fulfill a specific and necessary purpose but Creature A upon his own volition has the ability to refrain from turning left and do otherwise (and without any outside influence, or coercion including God's power) - then Creature A inevitably also has the freedom and ability to physically turn right instead and essentially undermine the 'will' of God and His purposes. If God has predetermined for Creature A to turn left for His own purposes and glory and His decree does not come to pass because of the 'freewill' of Creature A - then Creature A is his own sovereign unto himself and may very well even boast regarding his liberty as to be a self willed stand alone ruler which in return will ultimately lead to the sin of exalted pride and self glory before his Maker. 

This type of liberty and self glory of the creature cannot be according to Scripture. Even though God has seemingly given man some since of liberty to do as he will; however, man does not live his life according to absolute freedom. Man can only do what God has confined him to, for His very own purposes; God has deemed it so, for He will not give His glory to another. No flesh will have the opportunity to boast before the Lord; God will give no such leeway to sinful creatures for the sake of His holy name. No flesh will glory in His presence!

The LORD nullifies the plan of nations; He frustrates the plans of peoples. The councel of the LORD stands forever, The plans of His heart from generation to generation. - PSALMS 33:10-11

By Aaron Fisher

Possible Worlds? As in Molinism ....

     The teaching of some involving "Possible Worlds" is entirely unbiblical. This concept of "possible worlds" is foreign and not taught in scripture; it is a man made doctrine. The scriptures can't be broken (john 10:35). All that the Prophets and the Psalms spoke of MUST BE fulfilled. There is no other possible world; this world is the only world in the plan of God. Furthermore, there can't be the possibility of a so called another world for God has OBLIGATED HIMSELF to this world and this world alone; based upon His Eternal Covenants. He swore those Covenants with an UNBREAKABLE OATH. This particular world has always been the plan of God BEFORE CREATION. Christ was the Sacrificial Lamb foreknown by the Father before time. God's eternal plan regarding the Son cannot be altered; everything must take place as God has so decreed it - so there is no possibility of a another world that could come to pass. If so, then EVERYTHING that was predetermined to take place according to God's initial one and only decree would be obliterated and God's character and reputation would be in question as to who He truly is. God chose to reveal Himself in this world. God saw fit to only "actuate" this world to glorify Himself. 

     Besides the fact, seeing that God's wisdom, councel, judgements and ways are all perfect; how can there be any possibility of another world that could somehow be better than what is already claimed to be good and absolute (Genesis 1:31)? It's not like, the Triune God - Father, Son, and Holy Spirit were at odds with one another. No, the councel of the Godhead is perfect without any implication of disunity, confusion, or being betwixt and between but with complete clarity, certainty, mastery, preciseness, purposefulness and deliberateness . There is absolutely NO indecisiveness with God. From the beginning, there has been only one plan of God according to His decree before anything was created! Only ONE world!!!!

Molinism is just another attempt at a system to dethrone the sovereignty of God and elevate man's so called 'free will' in regards to his salvation.

By Aaron Fisher

Autonomous Creatures?

    Created creatures cannot be created as truly autonomously free in light of God's decree; His eternal plan and purposes, and not to mention His own glory which also reveals and define the character and nature of God Himself. If the character and nature of God could not be freely fully expressed in light of His complete divine meticulous sovereignty relating to what He has created, then we as human creatures could not ever know, regarding the true scriptural identity of the only self proclaiming living God who has always existed as one but yet three in persons (Yahweh) - and we could never rightfully worship Him as such as He is also properly deserving of our praise; for His true essence and being would be distorted through the lens of all things created by the creature if the scriptural revelation of Himself was denounced and hidden. I ask you, where is the glory of God to be found in such a notion as this? If you take away those things that make God out to be God; for example, such as His eternal decree, then the creatures view of God would not be based upon biblical actuality itself - for God is indeed Holy and sits above's the Heavens but nonetheless simultaneously meticulously governs His creation; those things upon the earth unto His own glory. If this was not the case - the so called "free creature" would be in danger by default as outright stealing or sharing the glory of God which is due to Him alone, hence; His praise according to His divine holiness or separateness. An eternal decree of God prevents such glory and boasting from what has been created; thus God's character is not maligned before man nor His holy name brought to a level of disrespect and ultimately blasphemy.

    In addition, it is an impossibility for God to create "free creatures" for God's glory will never nor could it ever be compromised as to be diminished by those things created because God's exaltation of Himself is both rightly and justly merited as Creator. And because of this truth, God does not lower His Majesty or Splendor for the sake of the creature. God is altogether glorious - "worthy is the Lord our God!" Furthermore, God's Majesty is founded in His attributes and His attributes are part of and consistent with His nature. Therefore, God cannot compromise the Majesty of who He is for the sake of the creature for this very thing would diminish His Being before all things created. Even so, just how could the creature exalt Himself higher than a being who is uncreated, eternal and likewise their maker? Again, this is an impossibility. For example, If man was "free" from God's decree to do otherwise, then he would have a reason to boast before the Lord; he would have become a sovereign (god) unto himself (ezekiel 28:2) possessing an ability to seemingly undo or thwart the will of the eternal God; but there is no other God or Creator besides Yahweh and so God ensures the impossibility of a "free" creature to do other than what God has predetermined leaving absolutely no room for sinful man to boast before Him. Even though God's glory could never actually be diminished in spite of the created being, He only ensures the impossibility of boasting for the sake of His name and I would also argue for the sake of the creature regarding ultimate judgement by establishing before creation an eternal decree distinguishing Himself as the only living and true God. Alone, to God be the glory!

By Aaron Fisher

So that the "world" may believe and know that you have sent me ~ Jesus Christ (John 17:21 and John 17:23)

It seems as though many Christians misunderstand when John says - "so that the world may believe and know that you sent me" regarding JOHN 17:21 and 17:23. They assume that the "world" spoken of is "all inclusive" - as in, including everyone without exception. However, a closer look will disprove such an interpretation. All one has to do is look at the context. Early on, when Jesus says "He's not praying for the world" - He was exclusively praying for the Apostles APART FROM those who will believe through their word (some several verses later). So when Jesus states that - "I do not ask for these (Apostles) only, but also for those will believe in me through their word" - He has NOW included the "WORLD" of all those given to Him; going beyond just the Apostles regarding His prayer (john 17:20). A very crucial and necessary point - So when Jesus states, "so that the world may believe" - He is referencing those who will believe (I do not ask for these only) regarding His prayer which goes beyond just the Apostles. In other words; the very ones Jesus additionally prays for (john 17:20) are of the "world" that has believed that the Father sent the Son. When Jesus mentions the "world" - he is NOT referring to an additional group of people other than for whom Jesus has prayed (john 17:20). NO. The "world" that has believed that the Father sent the Son (vs 21) are the very ones Jesus additionally prayed for (vs 20) having gone beyond just praying for the Apostles early on.

Likewise when Jesus says - "I in them and you in me, that they may become perfectly one, so that the 'world' may know that you sent me and loved them even as you love me" - He is referring to the very same ones He additionally has prayed for (john 17:20) having gone beyond just praying for the Apostles; those given to Him BUT have simply now included the "world" of all those given to Him as well. Mind you, when Jesus prayed soley for the Apostles; He prayed that they may "be one" even as the Son and the Father are one too (17:11). However, now, His prayer has gone beyond the Apostles and into the "world". The same ones Jesus has additionally prayed for (john 17:20) are the very same ones He now prays for that they too may become "perfectly one" along with the Apostles (john 17:23). So that - the "world" (of whom Jesus additionally prayed for, vs 20) may know that you sent me and loved them even as you loved me. The "world" of those who will believe and know that the Father sent the Son is the "world" of those that has been given to Him and that Jesus additionally has prayed for (vs 20), - again, having gone beyond "just" praying for the Apostles. The "world" in question who may believe and know that the Father sent the Son is in reference to those Jesus additionally has prayed for (I do not ask for these only) NOT some additional group of people of the "world" who were NEVER given to the Son nor EVER had the promise of Eternal Life; such an argument is read into the text. Many Christians want to make the "world" spoken of in 17:21 and 17:23 as relating to a group of people other than those given to the Son having the Promise of Eternal Life. However, when Jesus states - "so that the world may believe and know that you sent me; it is always in reference to those given to the Son and have the Promise of Eternal Life. No one outside or beyond this group of people have the possibility of ever obtaining Eternal Life. You must be given to the Son in order to obtain eternal life (john 17:2). Everyone is not given; therefore everyone will not obtain life.

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(1) I am praying for them (the Apostles only). I am not praying for the world (excluding everyone else) but for those whom you have given me for they are yours - VERSE 9

(2) I do not ask for these (the Apostles) only but also for those (of the world) who will believe in me through their (the Apostles) word, that they (those of the world who Christ additionally prays for going beyond just the Apostles, vs 20) may all be one just as you Father are in me and I in you, that they (those of the world who Christ additionally prays for going beyond just the Apostles, vs 20) also may be in us so that the world (not just the Apostles of whom Christ initially prayed for but those of the world whom Christ additionally prayed for, 20) may believe that you sent me - VERSE 20-21

(3) I in them and you in me, that they (those of the world who Christ additionally prays for going beyond just the Apostles, vs 20) may become perfectly one, so that the world (not just the Apostles of whom Christ initially prayed for but those of the world whom Christ additionally prayed for, 20) may know that you sent me and loved them (those of the world who Christ additionally prays for going beyond just the Apostles, vs 20) even as you loved me. Father, I desire that they (not just the Apostles of whom Christ initially prayed for but those of the world whom Christ additionally prayed for, 20) also whom you haven given me (those Christ additionally prayed for, vs 20) may be with me where i am to see my glory that you have given me because you loved me before the foundation of the world - VERSE 23-24

CONCLUSION:

Those of whom Christ additionally prays for (vs 20) are the "world" OR of the "world" that Christ speaks of - "so that the 'world' may believe you sent me. The very ones Christ additionally prays for (vs 20) are the same ones who will believe "of the world" that the Father sent the Son (vs 21,23, and 25); not some additional group of people not spoken of in the text other than those given to the Son (vs 2, 9, 10, 12, and 24). 

By Aaron Fisher 

Christ, the Propitiation for the sins of the "whole" world (1 john 2:2)?

Christ is the Propitiation, not only for our (Jews) sins, but for the sins of the whole world (including) Gentiles; but in particular - all those who were promised Eternal Life before creation/times eternal  1 John 2:2, 2:25, Titus 1:1-2 - God's Elect and the Lord's sheep. This is my premise.

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I won't be exegeting all of 1 John - 5 John but I will examine and point out what is necessary to make my argument. First off, 1st, 2nd, 3rd, 4th, and 5th Chapter of 1st John is a follow up to what John had already wrote regarding the Gospel of John. Secondly, the Book of 1st John is written to CHRISTIANS!!! 

John is reminding the reader (believers) of what he wrote earlier in - the Gospel of John (Chapter 1 - 21). He had stated specifically why he wrote these five chapters - "so that you MAY KNOW you have eternal life" 1 John 5:13. Throughout these five chapters, John was challenging them as new believers to do what is right as newly born again children of God. He exhorted them to love and obey; but if anyone sinned - God was faithful to forgive sin upon confession of sin (1 John 1:8-10). John showed that if anyone continued to sin then they were really not born again after all. He made a distinction between the children of the devil and the children of God (1 John 3:10). John goes on to encourage the believers to 'love one another'. John also Warned them not to be like Cain, who belonged to the evil one and murdered his brother - letting them know if anyone hates his brethren is a murderer at heart. But rather we should willing to lay down our lives for one another by following Christ example toward us (1 John 3:11-24). John continued to challenge the believers to "test the Spirits, to see if they're from God." There are some denying that the Son came in the flesh; which is - the spirit of the antichrist (1 John 4:1-3). Lastly, John ends with stating "everyone who believes that Jesus is the Christ is born of God, and everyone who loves the Father loves everyone born of Him (5 John 1:1). This is how we know we love the children of God by obeying out his commands.

With all that said, I have demonstrated that 1 John was WRITTEN TO CHRISTIANS. So, when John states in 1 John 2:2 that "Christ is the propitiation for OUR sins, and NOT for OURS ONLY but ALSO for the SINS OF THE WHOLE WORLD - the "whole world" is best interpreted "the whole world, consisting of Jew and Gentile" - see John 11:45-52. Those who determine to interpret the "whole world" as ALL PEOPLE without exception has gravely mishandled the text and not understood John's intent. Not only is the "whole world" is in reference to Jew and Gentile but it is ALSO in reference to believers and/or all those who WILL BELIEVE; Jew and Gentile But IN PARTICULAR, Christ Sheep - those who were PROMISED ETERNAL LIFE (1 John 2:25, 5:11). In other words, Christ is the propitiation for all those who HAVE BELIEVED and all those who WOULD BELIEVE and THESE ARE Christ Sheep - those who BELONG to Him and have ALWAYS BELONGED to Him from eternity past (ephesians 1:4, 1 Peter 1:20, 2:24-25). 1 John 4:10 states " In this is love, not that we have loved God but that he LOVED US and SENT HIS SON [into the world] to be the propitiation for OUR [sheep] sins. FURTHERMORE, 1 John 3:16 states "By this we know love, that He [Christ] laid down His life FOR US [sheep], and we ought to lay down our lives for the brothers".

The conclusion regarding these passages of Scripture and the surrounding CONTEXT of 1 John 2:2 is:

(1) The "whole world" is best interpreted "Jew and Gentile" - John 11:45-52.
(2) The "whole world" regarding this letter is in reference to believers; all those who have believed but also all those who will believe - 5 John 1:1, 1 John 2:25, 5:11
(3) All those who will believe are explicitly Christ Sheep - 1 John 2:25, 5:11, John 10:26
(4) Christ is the Propitiation for all those who were Promised Eternal Life ONLY - 1 John 2:25, 5:11, 1 John 4:10, John 10:27-28
(5) God sent His Son into the world to SPECIFICALLY save His Sheep - 1 John 4:10
(6) Christ laid down His life SPECIFICALLY for His OWN Sheep - 1 John 3:16
(7) ONLY Christ sheep WILL believe EXCLUDING all others - 1 John 3:10, John 8:43-47, John 10:26

I used several passages of Scripture in 1 John as supporting examples among many to show that the Atonement of Christ is EXPLICITLY said to be for ONLY God's Elect/Sheep. In doing so, I maintain that Christ DID NOT enter the world to make Salvation MERELY POSSIBLE for all men WITHOUT EXCEPTION but rather Christ came to redeem a PARTICULAR PEOPLE to HIMSELF. This is the biblical testimony of Scripture.

By Aaron Fisher

The GRACE of God has appeared to ALL men (Titus 2:11)?

God Offers Salvation To All People (Titus 2:11)?

Who is the "all people" Paul is referencing to in Titus 2:11? Well, those whom he has already identified in the previous verses; the different people groups that has claimed Jesus Christ as their God and Savior (vs 10).

Older Men (vs 2)
Older Women (vs 3)
Young Women/Wives (vs 4 &5)
Bondservants (vs 9)
Our Savior (vs 10)
Bringing Salvation to all believers (vs 11)
Training Us (vs 12)

Titus teaching is to train these believers (vs 1 and 12) to renounce ungodliness. This verse is NOT teaching that the Grace of God has appeared to all men without exception but to those who are already saved or being saved - and in particular, the Elect of God who had already been promised eternal life before time or creation (1 timothy 1:1-2); therefore, the Grace of God will only appear ultimately to God's Elect, not everyone without exception because everyone without exception has not been promised eternal life.

The "all" (vs11) is the "us" (vs12) and the "us" are believers (vs13-14). However, these believers, Paul has classified into categories.

Older Men (vs 2)
Older Women (vs 3)
Young Women/Wives (vs 4 &5)
Bondservants (vs 9)

So, the 'grace' that has appeared to "all men" that brings salvation is a grace regarding Titus teaching to which he was entrusted by the Apostle Paul (vs1) enabling those different categories of believers being trained to renounce ungodliness .... within their specific role as a Christian whether it be older men, older women, bondservants, ect ......

The same grace that has appeared to "all" that brings salvation; is the same grace that is training the "all" - and just who is it that this grace is "training" that has brought salvation to? Older men, Older women, Younger woman, Bondservants, ect ......

In context, this is the "all men" that the Grace of God has appeared to. The same grace that has appeared, is the same grace that trains; but only toward a classified group of believers who are ultimately the Elect.

In addition, the "grace of God that brings salvation to all people" is not in reference to initial salvation as to be born again for those whom Paul was addressing were already saved but the salvation that's being addressed in verse 11 is in reference to the "the appearing of the glory of our great God and Savior Jesus Christ". This salvation is considered to be related to the believers glorification at Christ appearing.

ÇONTEXT ALWAYS MATTERS!

By Aaron Fisher

Saving Grace is a Unique and Particular Grace that's not granted to all men but Only a select few; God's Elect (Ephesians 2:4-10).

SAVING GRACE is a particular grace that's not granted to all men but only a chosen few whom God has predetermined to unmeritly favor in regards to their salvation. This grace is distinct from all other graces bestowed by God seeing that only a select group can benefit from this unique grace. We see this confirmation of such grace particularly in Ephesians Chapter 1 and 2. The saving grace the Apostle Paul speaks of (ephesians 2:4-10) is in conjunction with Gods choosing and predestining before the foundation of the world a particular people as adopted sons to be holy and blameless (ephesians 1:4-5). Therefore, this particular grace rules out the "rest of mankind" (eph.1:3) or "sons of disobedience" whom God has left to remain in their sins being still deserving of wrath (ephesians 5:5-12) from ever benefitting from such grace.

In order for the "rest of mankind" or the "sons of disobedience" that God has passed over as to remain in their sins to benefit from this unique and particular saving grace - then they too must have been chosen in Christ and predestined as well before the foundation of the world to partake of any and such spiritual blessing (ephesians 1:3). Furthermore, those of whom God neither chose or predestined before creation also would have to been among those for whom Jesus had died for (ephesians 5:1-2) in order for them to be redeemed by His blood and their sins forgiven (ephesians 1:7) of which they were not. To argue otherwise, would be to undermine the love of God for a specific people unto His own glory and to assert or demand that God must love everyone as in all without exception in the very same manner for He only "in love" predestined before the foundation of the world those whom He foreknew; a particular people for His own glory while passing over the rest. Furthermore, to also argue against God having chose and predestined a select people unto salvation would call into question His wisdom, counsel, and judgement as if they are somehow flawed or misguided and not considered perfect in and of themselves seeing that God is perfect in all His ways as Paul goes on to rightly proclaim (ephesians 1:8-10). The grace or favor of God is only extended towards a select few of whom He has both foreknew and foreloved.

By Aaron Fisher