God is UNABLE for it is IMPOSSIBLE for Him to create Libertarian Free Creatures!

God would not nor neither could He create a "libertarian free" creature. God's nature confines Him to His own holiness or separateness from those things that He has created. And because of this truth, although God may posses the ability to create, He remains unable to create a libertarian free creature; according to His own nature. Otherwise, you would have to ask yourself - who's freedom would ultimately triumph over the other's in regards to carrying out their own intended personal 'will' based upon their desires - the Creator or the creature? 

The mere fact the scriptures emphatically proclaims that God has ordained for Himself predetermined eternal purposes that must come to pass and that no man has the ability to thwart His plan or purpose - is a clear revelation that sinful man's will is undeniably not free. How can you have man with a presumably libertarian free will that is able to do other than what the scriptures say God has already predetermined to come to pass regarding His purposes?  Sinful man CANNOT! In light of this fact, there is no such thing as libertarian free will. Just as God's nature as Deity restricts Him from creating a libertarian free creature because of the eternal purposes He has already preordained to come to pass; likewise, sinful man is also restricted because of His nature as mortal leaving him with the impossibility to ever thwart the plan, purposes, and will of the eternal God! 

Furthermore, God's character, attributes, holiness, glory, majesty are all undermined by creating such creatures as to be so called "free" - these are the very things that set God apart from His creation. In addition, God's decree or His eternal purposes are in direct relation to His nature. As it relates to God's nature, when His attributes are brought fourth and made known; the beauty of His Majesty is then visible. God will not compromise or afford to the creature what solely belongs to God and Him alone; that being, His glory. God's glory is seen by way of revealing His attributes and His attributes are the complete personification of His nature. However, the process to which by God has chose to express His attributes according to His nature is based upon an eternal decree. What God has predetermined beforehand; that is, before creation by way of a decree is carried out "in time" to manifest His character. Therefore, God's nature itself won't allow him to do as such - create a "free" creature. Just as it is impossible for God to lie because of His own nature; His nature, likewise won't allow Him to create a free creature. Or in other words, He is unable to create free creatures because of His nature and as a result God's decree is necessary to substantiate this truth. For example, if God was to lie, then that would undermine His character and Being and all that the scriptures say He is not. So, if it was possible for God to create "free creatures" then this too would undermine His character and Being as well. God's character is in association with His self ascribed glory and His glory is associated with His Majesty or ALL that His Being is. And if these things are compromised because of the "free will" of the creature; then we have not the God of the scriptures.

There cannot be two sovereigns that reside in one sole universe. You won't find in scripture where the creature will ever prevail over the Creators will; no matter how much one might try. God is the only sovereign and by necessity; what He has predetermined before creation to take place after creation will always come to pass in spite of the will of the creature. The creature has no "free will" to do other than what God has already ordained to happen - period. If you deny the God of the scriptures to the point where He cannot fully express or reveal Himself as He sees fit as Sovereign then you end up with a God foreign to that of the scriptures. Even as defined by the scriptures themselves - literally a false God or a god like all others according to the vain imaginations of sinful men hearts. However, and with much praise; thanks be to God - there is only "One True God" who not only won't but is unable to create "free creatures" for the sake of His Being and His holy name. God will not share His glory with another as Creator due to the nature of who He truly is!

IN SHORT:

Since God has determined to reveal Himself to His creation by way of His attributes and His attributes are a complete personification of His nature; then it is impossible for God to create a "free will" creature seeing that His revealing of His attributes "in time" are based upon what He has already pre-determined beforehand to come to pass according to a divine plan; in spite of the actions of man because the fulfilment of His plans are not dependent upon man but soley on God who has promised. If the "free creature" could do other than what God has previously determined; then the creature would have made the God of scriptures out to be a liar. What God has (1) determined beforehand to bring to pass; (2) reveals His attributes; (3) which are the very essence of His nature; and cannot be compromised by the creature - for these three things are inseparable from one another as to rightly identify the ONE and true living God!. If just one of these inseparable distinguishing traits is interrupted or denied simply by the "will" of the creature; then we do not have the God of the Bible but a foreign god that we do not know.

LASTLY AND IN CONCLUSION,

We, students of the Scriptures have the privilege of learning and knowing about God's holy nature because of His attributes that are revealed in scripture. God reveals His attributes based upon what He has predetermined beforehand to occur in order that we may know of His nature in keeping with His eternal purposes. However, God revealing His attributes shows forth His glory. God's decree before creation according to His eternal purposes reveals His character after creation or "in time" that we may truly come to understand and know Him as it relates to what the scriptures asserts as the "depth of the riches and wisdom and knowledge of God" which demonstrates that His judgements are unsearchable and His ways are past finding out. No one has truly known the mind of the Lord nor been His counselor as to have first given to Him anything as to repaid back. ALL things are from Him, by Him and to Him for His glory; to Him be honor and glory forever!

By Aaron Fisher

So that the "world" may believe and know that you have sent me ~ Jesus Christ (John 17:21 and John 17:23)

It seems as though many Christians misunderstand when John says - "so that the world may believe and know that you sent me" regarding JOHN 17:21 and 17:23. They assume that the "world" spoken of is "all inclusive" - as in, including everyone without exception. However, a closer look will disprove such an interpretation. All one has to do is look at the context. Early on, when Jesus says "He's not praying for the world" - He was exclusively praying for the Apostles APART FROM those who will believe through their word (some several verses later). So when Jesus states that - "I do not ask for these (Apostles) only, but also for those will believe in me through their word" - He has NOW included the "WORLD" of all those given to Him; going beyond just the Apostles regarding His prayer (john 17:20). A very crucial and necessary point - So when Jesus states, "so that the world may believe" - He is referencing those who will believe (I do not ask for these only) regarding His prayer which goes beyond just the Apostles. In other words; the very ones Jesus additionally prays for (john 17:20) are of the "world" that has believed that the Father sent the Son. When Jesus mentions the "world" - he is NOT referring to an additional group of people other than for whom Jesus has prayed (john 17:20). NO. The "world" that has believed that the Father sent the Son (vs 21) are the very ones Jesus additionally prayed for (vs 20) having gone beyond just praying for the Apostles early on.

Likewise when Jesus says - "I in them and you in me, that they may become perfectly one, so that the 'world' may know that you sent me and loved them even as you love me" - He is referring to the very same ones He additionally has prayed for (john 17:20) having gone beyond just praying for the Apostles; those given to Him BUT have simply now included the "world" of all those given to Him as well. Mind you, when Jesus prayed soley for the Apostles; He prayed that they may "be one" even as the Son and the Father are one too (17:11). However, now, His prayer has gone beyond the Apostles and into the "world". The same ones Jesus has additionally prayed for (john 17:20) are the very same ones He now prays for that they too may become "perfectly one" along with the Apostles (john 17:23). So that - the "world" (of whom Jesus additionally prayed for, vs 20) may know that you sent me and loved them even as you loved me. The "world" of those who will believe and know that the Father sent the Son is the "world" of those that has been given to Him and that Jesus additionally has prayed for (vs 20), - again, having gone beyond "just" praying for the Apostles. The "world" in question who may believe and know that the Father sent the Son is in reference to those Jesus additionally has prayed for (I do not ask for these only) NOT some additional group of people of the "world" who were NEVER given to the Son nor EVER had the promise of Eternal Life; such an argument is read into the text. Many Christians want to make the "world" spoken of in 17:21 and 17:23 as relating to a group of people other than those given to the Son having the Promise of Eternal Life. However, when Jesus states - "so that the world may believe and know that you sent me; it is always in reference to those given to the Son and have the Promise of Eternal Life. No one outside or beyond this group of people have the possibility of ever obtaining Eternal Life. You must be given to the Son in order to obtain eternal life (john 17:2). Everyone is not given; therefore everyone will not obtain life.

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(1) I am praying for them (the Apostles only). I am not praying for the world (excluding everyone else) but for those whom you have given me for they are yours - VERSE 9

(2) I do not ask for these (the Apostles) only but also for those (of the world) who will believe in me through their (the Apostles) word, that they (those of the world who Christ additionally prays for going beyond just the Apostles, vs 20) may all be one just as you Father are in me and I in you, that they (those of the world who Christ additionally prays for going beyond just the Apostles, vs 20) also may be in us so that the world (not just the Apostles of whom Christ initially prayed for but those of the world whom Christ additionally prayed for, 20) may believe that you sent me - VERSE 20-21

(3) I in them and you in me, that they (those of the world who Christ additionally prays for going beyond just the Apostles, vs 20) may become perfectly one, so that the world (not just the Apostles of whom Christ initially prayed for but those of the world whom Christ additionally prayed for, 20) may know that you sent me and loved them (those of the world who Christ additionally prays for going beyond just the Apostles, vs 20) even as you loved me. Father, I desire that they (not just the Apostles of whom Christ initially prayed for but those of the world whom Christ additionally prayed for, 20) also whom you haven given me (those Christ additionally prayed for, vs 20) may be with me where i am to see my glory that you have given me because you loved me before the foundation of the world - VERSE 23-24

CONCLUSION:

Those of whom Christ additionally prays for (vs 20) are the "world" OR of the "world" that Christ speaks of - "so that the 'world' may believe you sent me. The very ones Christ additionally prays for (vs 20) are the same ones who will believe "of the world" that the Father sent the Son (vs 21,23, and 25); not some additional group of people not spoken of in the text other than those given to the Son (vs 2, 9, 10, 12, and 24). 

By Aaron Fisher 

Christ, the Propitiation for the sins of the "whole" world (1 john 2:2)?

Christ is the Propitiation, not only for our (Jews) sins, but for the sins of the whole world (including) Gentiles; but in particular - all those who were promised Eternal Life before creation/times eternal  1 John 2:2, 2:25, Titus 1:1-2 - God's Elect and the Lord's sheep. This is my premise.

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I won't be exegeting all of 1 John - 5 John but I will examine and point out what is necessary to make my argument. First off, 1st, 2nd, 3rd, 4th, and 5th Chapter of 1st John is a follow up to what John had already wrote regarding the Gospel of John. Secondly, the Book of 1st John is written to CHRISTIANS!!! 

John is reminding the reader (believers) of what he wrote earlier in - the Gospel of John (Chapter 1 - 21). He had stated specifically why he wrote these five chapters - "so that you MAY KNOW you have eternal life" 1 John 5:13. Throughout these five chapters, John was challenging them as new believers to do what is right as newly born again children of God. He exhorted them to love and obey; but if anyone sinned - God was faithful to forgive sin upon confession of sin (1 John 1:8-10). John showed that if anyone continued to sin then they were really not born again after all. He made a distinction between the children of the devil and the children of God (1 John 3:10). John goes on to encourage the believers to 'love one another'. John also Warned them not to be like Cain, who belonged to the evil one and murdered his brother - letting them know if anyone hates his brethren is a murderer at heart. But rather we should willing to lay down our lives for one another by following Christ example toward us (1 John 3:11-24). John continued to challenge the believers to "test the Spirits, to see if they're from God." There are some denying that the Son came in the flesh; which is - the spirit of the antichrist (1 John 4:1-3). Lastly, John ends with stating "everyone who believes that Jesus is the Christ is born of God, and everyone who loves the Father loves everyone born of Him (5 John 1:1). This is how we know we love the children of God by obeying out his commands.

With all that said, I have demonstrated that 1 John was WRITTEN TO CHRISTIANS. So, when John states in 1 John 2:2 that "Christ is the propitiation for OUR sins, and NOT for OURS ONLY but ALSO for the SINS OF THE WHOLE WORLD - the "whole world" is best interpreted "the whole world, consisting of Jew and Gentile" - see John 11:45-52. Those who determine to interpret the "whole world" as ALL PEOPLE without exception has gravely mishandled the text and not understood John's intent. Not only is the "whole world" is in reference to Jew and Gentile but it is ALSO in reference to believers and/or all those who WILL BELIEVE; Jew and Gentile But IN PARTICULAR, Christ Sheep - those who were PROMISED ETERNAL LIFE (1 John 2:25, 5:11). In other words, Christ is the propitiation for all those who HAVE BELIEVED and all those who WOULD BELIEVE and THESE ARE Christ Sheep - those who BELONG to Him and have ALWAYS BELONGED to Him from eternity past (ephesians 1:4, 1 Peter 1:20, 2:24-25). 1 John 4:10 states " In this is love, not that we have loved God but that he LOVED US and SENT HIS SON [into the world] to be the propitiation for OUR [sheep] sins. FURTHERMORE, 1 John 3:16 states "By this we know love, that He [Christ] laid down His life FOR US [sheep], and we ought to lay down our lives for the brothers".

The conclusion regarding these passages of Scripture and the surrounding CONTEXT of 1 John 2:2 is:

(1) The "whole world" is best interpreted "Jew and Gentile" - John 11:45-52.
(2) The "whole world" regarding this letter is in reference to believers; all those who have believed but also all those who will believe - 5 John 1:1, 1 John 2:25, 5:11
(3) All those who will believe are explicitly Christ Sheep - 1 John 2:25, 5:11, John 10:26
(4) Christ is the Propitiation for all those who were Promised Eternal Life ONLY - 1 John 2:25, 5:11, 1 John 4:10, John 10:27-28
(5) God sent His Son into the world to SPECIFICALLY save His Sheep - 1 John 4:10
(6) Christ laid down His life SPECIFICALLY for His OWN Sheep - 1 John 3:16
(7) ONLY Christ sheep WILL believe EXCLUDING all others - 1 John 3:10, John 8:43-47, John 10:26

I used several passages of Scripture in 1 John as supporting examples among many to show that the Atonement of Christ is EXPLICITLY said to be for ONLY God's Elect/Sheep. In doing so, I maintain that Christ DID NOT enter the world to make Salvation MERELY POSSIBLE for all men WITHOUT EXCEPTION but rather Christ came to redeem a PARTICULAR PEOPLE to HIMSELF. This is the biblical testimony of Scripture.

By Aaron Fisher

The GRACE of God has appeared to ALL men (Titus 2:11)?

God Offers Salvation To All People (Titus 2:11)?

Who is the "all people" Paul is referencing to in Titus 2:11? Well, those whom he has already identified in the previous verses; the different people groups that has claimed Jesus Christ as their God and Savior (vs 10).

Older Men (vs 2)
Older Women (vs 3)
Young Women/Wives (vs 4 &5)
Bondservants (vs 9)
Our Savior (vs 10)
Bringing Salvation to all believers (vs 11)
Training Us (vs 12)

Titus teaching is to train these believers (vs 1 and 12) to renounce ungodliness. This verse is NOT teaching that the Grace of God has appeared to all men without exception but to those who are already saved or being saved - and in particular, the Elect of God who had already been promised eternal life before time or creation (1 timothy 1:1-2); therefore, the Grace of God will only appear ultimately to God's Elect, not everyone without exception because everyone without exception has not been promised eternal life.

The "all" (vs11) is the "us" (vs12) and the "us" are believers (vs13-14). However, these believers, Paul has classified into categories.

Older Men (vs 2)
Older Women (vs 3)
Young Women/Wives (vs 4 &5)
Bondservants (vs 9)

So, the 'grace' that has appeared to "all men" that brings salvation is a grace regarding Titus teaching to which he was entrusted by the Apostle Paul (vs1) enabling those different categories of believers being trained to renounce ungodliness .... within their specific role as a Christian whether it be older men, older women, bondservants, ect ......

The same grace that has appeared to "all" that brings salvation; is the same grace that is training the "all" - and just who is it that this grace is "training" that has brought salvation to? Older men, Older women, Younger woman, Bondservants, ect ......

In context, this is the "all men" that the Grace of God has appeared to. The same grace that has appeared, is the same grace that trains; but only toward a classified group of believers who are ultimately the Elect.

In addition, the "grace of God that brings salvation to all people" is not in reference to initial salvation as to be born again for those whom Paul was addressing were already saved but the salvation that's being addressed in verse 11 is in reference to the "the appearing of the glory of our great God and Savior Jesus Christ". This salvation is considered to be related to the believers glorification at Christ appearing.

ÇONTEXT ALWAYS MATTERS!

By Aaron Fisher

Saving Grace is a Unique and Particular Grace that's not granted to all men but Only a select few; God's Elect (Ephesians 2:4-10).

SAVING GRACE is a particular grace that's not granted to all men but only a chosen few whom God has predetermined to unmeritly favor in regards to their salvation. This grace is distinct from all other graces bestowed by God seeing that only a select group can benefit from this unique grace. We see this confirmation of such grace particularly in Ephesians Chapter 1 and 2. The saving grace the Apostle Paul speaks of (ephesians 2:4-10) is in conjunction with Gods choosing and predestining before the foundation of the world a particular people as adopted sons to be holy and blameless (ephesians 1:4-5). Therefore, this particular grace rules out the "rest of mankind" (eph.1:3) or "sons of disobedience" whom God has left to remain in their sins being still deserving of wrath (ephesians 5:5-12) from ever benefitting from such grace.

In order for the "rest of mankind" or the "sons of disobedience" that God has passed over as to remain in their sins to benefit from this unique and particular saving grace - then they too must have been chosen in Christ and predestined as well before the foundation of the world to partake of any and such spiritual blessing (ephesians 1:3). Furthermore, those of whom God neither chose or predestined before creation also would have to been among those for whom Jesus had died for (ephesians 5:1-2) in order for them to be redeemed by His blood and their sins forgiven (ephesians 1:7) of which they were not. To argue otherwise, would be to undermine the love of God for a specific people unto His own glory and to assert or demand that God must love everyone as in all without exception in the very same manner for He only "in love" predestined before the foundation of the world those whom He foreknew; a particular people for His own glory while passing over the rest. Furthermore, to also argue against God having chose and predestined a select people unto salvation would call into question His wisdom, counsel, and judgement as if they are somehow flawed or misguided and not considered perfect in and of themselves seeing that God is perfect in all His ways as Paul goes on to rightly proclaim (ephesians 1:8-10). The grace or favor of God is only extended towards a select few of whom He has both foreknew and foreloved.

By Aaron Fisher

John 6:44: Unconditional Election & Irresistible Grace? (Responding to Leighton Flowers)

The notorious John 6 passage. Leighton's argument and understanding of the text is that the "one" coming (the second "him") is essentially coming according to his own "free will" and possess the ability in and of himself to either continue to come (accept Christ) or not (reject Christ) as in not effectually drawn by God to be raised up. However, Leighton Flowers outrightly ignores context and should not be taken seriously in his misinterpretation of John 6. In fact, in order for Leighton's interpretation of John 6 to be deemed accurate; the "one" coming to Christ (the second "him") according to John 6:44 MUST have the 'option' of possessing some sort of ability apart from God as not to come or freely reject Christ. However, according to John 6:37 - no such "option" is granted to the "one" who is "coming".

And therein lies the major problem with Leighton's interpretation of the text. John 6:37 is crystal clear - "all that the Father gives me WILL come to me, and whoever or the one coming to me I will NEVER cast out. The Greek mé (3361) as in NEVER or SHALL NOT cast out in regards to 6:37; denotes an impossibility or ruling out the possibility for the Son to cast out the one "coming to Him". Therefore, it is IMPOSSIBLE for the one whom the Father draws as to come to Christ as to not be "effectually" drawn as to believe and ultimately be raised up; for the same one that that Son will never "cast out" is the very same one that is purposely drawn by the Father and comes to Christ. If the purpose of the Father's 'drawing' is for everyone of all that has been given to the Son to look to the Son as to believe in Him - then why would the Son reject the "one coming" due to the fact that the Father has purposely drawn the "one coming" as for Christ to lose none of all that has been given to Him according to the Father's will? If such a rejection of Christ is possible; then the Father's will has been denied by the so called 'free will" of the creature.

And If the one that comes to Christ is never cast out by the Son (as in ruling out the possibility of being cast out); then how is it possible for the one coming to Christ not to ultimately believe since the one that is never cast out by Him is likewise raised up on the last day according to Christ?

Furthermore, the one "coming" to Christ does so because it is the will of the Father for them to do so (john 6:37-38, 40). In addition, the one also "coming" to Christ must be enabled to do so by the Father as well (john 6:44, 65). So if the one "coming" to Christ has the ability/option to reject Christ; as in NOT being effectually drawn by the Father then such an assertion as Leighton suggest would turn upside down the Father's purpose of having the Son as to lose none of all that He has given Him and raise it up on the last day (john 6:39) AND would likewise simultaneously undermine the mission of the Son of having to come down from Heaven to begin with (john 6:38-39) - for it is the Father's will that "everyone" of "all" that has been given to the Son who in return looks to the Son and believes shall be raised up (john 6:40).

This is why the Son will NEVER (as in no possibility of) cast out the one "coming" to Him for it is the Father's will for the one "coming" not to reject Christ (john 6:39-40) but instead be effectually drawn as to fulfill the Father's will through the Son having everyone given to the Son look to the Son and believe as to be raised up on the last day!

Conclusion: there is NO contextual interpretation of the text that would justify the one "coming" as "freely' coming; as in having the option or ability not to come or reject Christ. Leighton is once again biblically wrong!

Leighton's Commentary:

By, Aaron Fisher.

Leighton Flowers WRONG on Predestination!!!

GRACE AND PEACE, BRETHREN. (also see video below)

      Leighton Flowers acknowledges that the Bible indeed speaks in regards to predestination. .However, he absolutely has a misunderstanding of what predestination actually teaches. He emphatically denies that the Scriptures teaches that God has chose and predestined a particular group of people unto Himself before the foundation of the world for salvation. But is Leighton correct in his assertion? The Scriptures mentions predestination approximately six times (Acts 4, verse 28, Romans 8, verse 29, Roman 7, verse 30, 1 corinthians 2, verse 7, ephesians 1,verse 5, and Ephesians 1, verse 11).It is the Greek word 'proorizo'. It literally means to predetermine or foreordain. Also, in some instances, it can mean "marked out beforehand" .Out of the six instances where the Greek word proorizo is used, only five usage of the word is associated with God's elect. However, all six usage of this Greek word that's found in Scripture is in reference to an action by God that transpired before the foundation of the world. God has predestined essentially in each instance of the word 'proorizo' {before the foundation of the world}

.     Leighton states that "I know that I'm going to heaven because God has predestined for believers to go to heaven". Technically, that's not true .Nowhere in Scripture is the Greek word 'proorizo' used as describing God having predetermining believers for heaven .Just the opposite. God has predetermined those whom he foreknew will be conformed to the bodily image of His Son (Romans 8, verse 29).It would be unbiblical to equate those whom God foreknew as believers and no other text of Scripture implies as such. The text plainly states that God predestined those whom he foreknew. In other words, God foreknowing of a particular people preceded his predestining .Furthermore, God's predestining of a people likewise precedes his 'call' of the very same people to Himself by means of the Gospel message .If God has predestined a people prior to the call of the very same people by way of the Gospel, then those whom he foreknew were not believers, but unbelievers -having not heard, as to have been called as of yet by means of the Gospel. God foreknew, predestined, called, justified, and then glorified His elect (the order of salvation). In addition, when the apostle Paul states that God predestined "us" for adoption to Himself as sons; God was not predestining 'believers' for adoption as sons. God had predestined those of the Ephesian Church who had 'not yet existed' as a people for adoption before the foundation of the world. Seeing that God elected the very same "us" before the foundation of the world to be holy and blameless as well -when no one had been born as of yet. Mind you, God's predestining precedes his call of a people through the Gospel. As we saw in Romans 8. God 'marked us out" beforehand for adoption as sons prior to his call. In fact, this 'marking out' beforehand or predestining was before the foundation of the world in the same manner as God having chose "us". The question remains, who are these particular people whom God foreknew? Well, the preceding verse tells us; those whom God foreknew are those for whom 'all things work together, who now love God'(Romans 8 verse 28).Paul is speaking about those believers who groan inwardly ,having the first fruits of the Spirit, waiting eagerly for adoption as sons, the redemption of their bodies having been saved based upon this hope (Romans 8, verses 23 to 24).Paul speaks of this hope in the midst of the Ephesian believers sufferings (Romans 8, verse 18).Paul encourages these believers in light of their inward groanings, informing them that the Spirit intercedes on their behalf according to the will of God. It is because of this fact that this is how the Ephesian believers, or all believers for that matter, can know and rest assured that all things will work together for their good in the midst of suffering - thanks to the Spirit, who intercedes on our behalf in our weaknesses. However, when Paul speaks of God foreknowing these particular believers, this foreknowing is not only in reference to God knowing them prior to his call of them as believers by way of the Gospel, but God ultimately foreknew them before the foundation of the world .Do you recall when I earlier made the claim that God has predestined in each instance of the Greek word proorizo {before the foundation of the world}? Well, when Paul speaks of God having chose 'us' in Christ before the foundation of the world, we can altogether agree, however, that no man existed prior to the foundation of the world. Although God, who is not bound by time, knew or rather foreknew those whom he chose in Christ even before they existed. This is why Paul could go on to say that God predestined to sonship the very same ones he likewise chose before the foundation of the world to be holy and blameless (Ephesians 1, verses 4 to 5).So when Paul states that for those whom God foreknew, he predestined (in Romans), and God having predestined the same group of people He chose before the foundation of the world,(in Ephesians), this predestining is always in reference to before creation, even though it may not be directly stated in every instance where the word appears. God has indeed predestined a people prior to the call of the gospel, but ultimately he has predestined beforetime began or before the foundation of the world, in each instance of the word (1.Corinthians 2, verse 7). 

     Lastly, Leighton makes an erroneous claim that somehow, if God has, according to his sovereign prerogative, chose a particular people before the foundation of the world to believe unto salvation, then such a decree by God would deem to be done so arbitrarily, as in God's will, would be considered arbitrary to the neglect of those who were not chose, leading ultimately to their damnation. Leighton contributes such a 'will' by God as irrational and God unjustly, having shown partiality to some at the expense of others. It's true, God does not show partiality. But what does this actually mean? Well, God does not show partiality or favor for merely one group of people, (the Jews) but he has determined to extend the same saving grace towards other groups of people, (the Gentiles or the nations) as well. However, this is not to say that God is restricted in showing favor to certain individuals among both groups; for this is what the Scriptures consistently teach. When God saves, he calls out from among both groups; Jew and Gentile, not "every" Jew and Gentile without exception, as some falsely claim. Leighton has misunderstood this teaching. In my opinion, Leighton likes to use the word arbitrary against those who teach unconditional election because he negatively associates the term with an evil dictator or a capricious judge - but wrongly so, when it comes to Scripture. He thinks those who teach unconditional election that their God is simply irrational, unjust, and not found in Scripture. It is apparent that Leighton has become extremely frustrated with the doctrine of predestination, accurately taught and understood, because God has not entirely revealed to Him or us why he chose beforehand one person over another for salvation, other than to reveal that he has predestined a particular people unto Himself as sons - in love and for his own glory. God has eternally loved those he has predestined. But it is also apparent Leighton is not the least satisfied with what God has graciously chosen to reveal or not reveal; according to his word .Leighton is seemingly demanding of God more than what God has determined, as if God owes Leighton or any other sinful man for that matter, a detailed explanation of His actions (romans 9, verse 20).The apostle Paul states that God chose a particular people before the foundation of the world to be holy and blameless, (ephesians 1, verse 4), and predestined them to sonship (ephesians 1, verse five).However, notice who God DID NOT choose, nor neither predestined, but essentially passed over for salvation - the "rest of mankind". So, did God really predestined a particular people to himself, as sons to the neglect of the rest or the rest of humanity, as Scripture states (ephesians 2:3)? It, seems as though the Apostle Paul has taught the very same thing as those of us who also teach unconditional election. Leighton Flowers, is so wrong on predestination. And unfortunately, he is leading many people astray according to his misunderstanding. I pray the Lord will open his eyes to know the truth of Scripture.

by Aaron Fisher